Perhaps, but what difference does it make to who Jesus actually was just because His mission may have extended to another continent?
Thanks for your reply.
The difference is that in the NT stories, the resurrected Jesus appeared on, and only on, his home soil among the Jews, and then without more ascended to heaven where he was united (or reunited) with God.
In those stories, he did not, for example, appear in Britain, Europe, Africa, Asia, India, North, Central or South America, the islands of any of the oceans, Australia, Antarctica, whatever. In this sense, you may agree, to the onlooker it may seem anomalous that he should make just the one overseas reappearance.
The Bible is an account of His ministry in the Holy Land and refers to His intentions to also speak to others of "[His] sheep" that were "not of this fold" (i.e. not of the fold of the Israelites living in and around Jerusalem). Our belief that He did so certainly does not contradict anything the Bible has to say about Him.
The parts of the NT about evangelizing / proselytizing are from Greek (in particular Cynic) philosophy. They reflect a local (Eastern Roman Empire) view, as does Paul, Acts and the NT more generally. That makes the Mormon example at the least unusual, unexpected, but I can't off-hand think of anything it actually contradicts, as you say.
I'm not aware that Mark teaches that He was conceived through an earthly father, but if you can provide me with the passage or passages you're thinking of, I'd be happy to comment.
First of all, none of the authors of the books of the NT ever knew an historical Jesus, any more than Paul did.
Second, Mark is both the earliest gospel, and the only biography of the earthly Jesus. That's to say, Paul's earthly bio of Jesus fits into two lines; and the authors of Matthew, Luke and John rewrite Mark because they wish to improve it. (A simple example is how Mark's Jesus is a broken, forlorn and abandoned man; Matthew's is a bit more together; Luke's omits to say, "Why have You forsake me?"; and John's is more like the MC of his crucifixion. Don't take my word for it, reread them for yourself.)
In Mark, Jesus goes to John the Baptist to be washed of his sins. Only when this is done do the heavens open and God declares Jesus to be his son. The model is Psalms 2:7, and though the words "this day I have begotten you" are omitted, they're implicit (and later, in Acts 13:33, they're completely explicit). That's to say, this is how King David became son of God and this is how Jesus became son / Son of God.
(This is unacceptable to the authors of Matthew and Luke, who want Jesus to hit the ground already divine ─ hence the angelic messengers, Bethlehem, flight into Egypt, all of which are attempting to make Jesus conform to passages in the Tanakh which their authors like to think are messianic prophecies.
It's also unacceptable to the author of John, who like Paul is a gnostic, and for whom Jesus is the demiurge: that is, both the Jesus of Paul (1 Corinthians 8:6) and the Jesus of John (John 1:10) created the material world (something which in the gnostic view, God, being pure spirit, would never think of doing) and thereafter mediated between the material world and God.)
Mark is the only use of a Jewish model for the son/Son of God. The models in Matthew and Luke (divine insemination) and Paul and John (gnostic, pre-existing, demiurge) are all Greek.
In Matthew and Luke, the birth of Jesus is attended by advance angelic messages, and the birth itself by astrological signs, the attendance of Magi, and miraculous displays. In Mark, however, when Jesus gets into an argument with the local religious authorities, his family think he's nuts (Mark 4:21) ─ you don't do that if you've been visited by angelic messengers to tip you off.
Also, I don't see either Matthew's or Luke's account of His conception as contradicting anything Paul or John said.
Paul and the author of John, our two gnostics, have a different understanding of theology, hence Christology, to the one shared, however roughly, by the authors of Matthew and Luke, whose Jesuses didn't exist before their miraculous conceptions ─ a different Greek model to the gnostics. By contrast, Paul and the author of John are vague about who bore Jesus and how; like Mark they completely omit the shepherds, stars, Magi, Massacre of the Innocents, flight into Egypt, and so on ─ something I'd be slow to omit were that the model of Jesus I was advocating.