justbehappy
Active Member
I really like the point that it is supposed to be protected but yet there are many versions. Thanks for bringing that up; I haven't heard that before
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Furthermore though, Luke shows a clear lack of knowledge about Nazareth. If you continue reading past Luke 4:16, you end up seeing the villagers wanting to throw Jesus off a cliff on the hill that the town was built. There is no such cliff.
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No, Nazareth is located at Nazareth. We know where Nazareth is. There really is no distinction here. There is no cliff, there was no synagogue, and it can only be termed a city in a very loose way (as it only had two to four hundred people at most.The gospels are not copies of each other but often compliment each other.
Luke 4:29 does Not say villagers.
Luke 1:26; 2:4, 39 refers to Nazareth as a 'city'.
Nazareth has been associated with: En Nasira (Nazerat) in Galilee.
There is a rocky cliff some 40 feet high located SW of the city.
That could have been the brow that the people wanted to hurl Jesus off.
Obviously, this question is for those that do, or did. Why do you believe the Bible to be the unfallible and inspired word of God? I used to believe that, because growing up I was taught that it was so and not to question it.
Years down the raod, and I decided to investigate it on my own. My question was simply "why do we believe the bible is Gods word?" The Bible itself certainly doesn't say so, since it was not written as a single book and could therefore make no such claim.
Jesus made no mention of a book that would contain the words of God,and be 100% accurate and true. You'd think if he had wnated this to be, he'd have taken the time to write it himself so that there was no dispute over authorship,timeline,authenticity etc.
We don't know who wrote th bible,or even when, and yet we are to believe thsi is the one true word of God? All we know is that it was written and edited by men. How many things have men gotten their hands on that they didn't screw up or corrupt in some way? Many will claim that God protected the word so that is was not corrupted. Yet today we ahve many translations of the bible, and since they are different they can't all be right. How come Gods power no longer protects the Bible now?
Also, since we're speaking of holy scripture, what makes the Bible more reliable,true and trustworthy than the Jewish books, the Qur'an, or any of the other religions texts?
Perhaps I'm missing something, but fail to see how the Bible stands up under scrutiny as teh one true word of God. I think this could probably be applied to any book(s) that claim to be Gods one true word, I'm just more familiar with the bible
I wonder sometimes if perhaps everyone of the different cultures/religions got a little piece of the puzzle,and instead of examining everything to try to solve the mystery,everyone clings to their little piece as the whole and unvarnished truth.
The early church knew this and had no problem with it. It is only the critics of today who narrow their vision into a literalness and require this to be a "contradiction" when in reality we have an explanation that is more than sufficient.
Why do I believe the bible is true?
Because while I was dead I picked up a bible and held onto it for many many years while enduring the worst this world has to offer.... and it was with me the whole time and it delievered me into a life I love where all hope had previously been lost. Through following what this book has to offer I have completely rebuilt my life and find that I am a person that I love... where as I was once a man trying to fit in I am now someone that I love for who I am. the bible has made me a better person so there is no doubt whatsoever in it.
The bible isn't protected to this day? I wasn't aware of that
In the end christianity isn't about scrutinity.... it isn't about being right.... it isn't even about being wrong.... it's about loving those around you and it tells you how best to do it.
First, the term synagogue has to be realized. Before the Second Temple was destroyed, the term synagogue primary use was to define a gathering. There were some buildings that this occurred in, but the synagogue, as we know it, did not happen until the Temple was destroyed.
The idea of the synagogue, a gathering place, did start after Solomon's temple was destroyed. However, it was, for the most part, not a stationary building. It allowed a more portable Judaism, as to protect their individuality. It was not used for what a modern synagogue is used for.
This was true until after the time of the destruction of the Second Temple (which, synagogues as we know, became more popular, and important). This did not happen overnight, but happened over time.
A portable Judaism was important, and that is why the idea of the synagogue was important. They did not have a home land, yet they did not want to be assimilated into the culture that conquered them. So they did what they needed in order to protect their individuality.
During the time of Jesus, a synagogue was a communal gathering where such events as marriage, circumcisions, and town gatherings occurred, and the scripture was translated from Hebrew to the vernacular Aramaic. The rest had not yet been developed. There was no teaching one how to read the scriptures. That happened after the Temple was destroyed. Even so though, most of the tradition of Judaism was taught from the family.
So synagogues did not hold a high importance in a religion that was temple oriented, where the Temple dominated the religion. Synagogues did exist, but not in the form that they do today.
As for literacy, the best specific work on Jewish literacy rate is 3 percent. The reason for this is simple, it was not important. One did not have to read and write to be intelligent.
Looking at the story in Luke, the fact that it only appears in that Gospel is significant. We know that Luke is based off of Mark. Since Mark does not have the story, there are really only two options. Luke had another source, or it was a creation. I have already explained why it was a Lukan creation, as it helped further his position.
Also, archeological study is important in discovering a historical Jesus and the world in which he lived in. It is known that Nazareth was an insignificant hamlet during the time of Jesus. Its population was most likely around 200-400 people. It was a very poor community of peasants.
The peasant class had no real time to learn how to read or write, and most likely would not have cared to read what the literate (upper class) had to write. It simply was not important. Especially when they were struggling just to survive. Again, they were poor, and had to work to survive. It would have been counterproductive, and simply illogical to waste that precious time trying to learn how to read the scripture (which was in Hebrew, and their language was Aramaic).
With all of this put together, we know that there was no synagogue building in Nazareth. Which supports the idea that the story in Luke was simply his own creation.
No. Those were just supporting comments. The actual argument is more based on what Luke was trying to portray through his two volume set. I explained it in more detail before, so I do not see a reason to reiterate that point.Your point can be summarized as stating that Luke 16:4 is anachronistic because it assumes Nazareth to have a synagogue in the first half of the first century and Jesus to have been literate.
I go too far because I use historical data in order to reinforce my ideas? The remains are not too meagre. We can form logical conclusions from what we have already uncovered both at the physical location, and literary remarks, or the lack of. Also, I do not believe that I go too far about what I had to say about the synagogue and literacy rates. The fact was that the synagogue institution you are speaking of is from a later time. The synagogue was different during the first century C.E. then the second century and so forth.You go too far in reference to Nazareth at the time. The remains of the time are too meagre to draw conclusions. You go too far in drawing the conclusion that the synagogue institution did not have an affect on literacy at the time. You go too far in drawing the conclusion that the Roman class system was perfectly reflected in Jewish society, with consequent implications for literacy. We have already discussed all of these points.
I am not the only one who shares the conclusions that I have made though. A more in depth study can be seen in John Dominic Crossan's and Jonathan L Reed's book Excavating Jesus. Both are authorities on their own subject, Crossan's being the historical Jesus (and he is considered the premier scholar on the subject). So my ideas are not unfounded, especially that there is the evidence (as discovered by other scholars and researchers as well) that would support my conclusions. There is a chance that I am wrong, and I will admit that if it is shown to be; but as of now, I do not see that to be the case.
The story of the Massacre of the Innocents doesn't appear again until the Gospel of James which is believed to have been written in the mid Second century. To say that it couldn't have happened because of the lack of historical record is an argument from silence and not a good one. It actually strengthens the case for a historical Jesus. If Christians had invented a Messiah, similar to the Roman god Mithras, both Jews and Romans would have reason to prove that Jesus was not a real person. Christians took verses from the OT and applied them to Jesus; both verses about a Messiah and verses about Yahweh. With the possible exception of Luke, the authors of the New Testament were Orthodox Jews and some of what they wrote would have been blasphemy. If first century Jews and Romans wanted to prove that Jesus was not a real person then there should be some historical document from the first century with an attempted refutation of the Massacre of the Innocents but there isn't any.We have the story of Herod having all new born babies killed in an attempt to kill Jesus, which never happened.
This is Leviticus 11:13-20 in the KJV:Those are quite major ones and I think two should suffice in this case. If not though, there is always the passage that claims that the bat is a bird.
The story of the Massacre of the Innocents doesn't appear again until the Gospel of James which is believed to have been written in the mid Second century. To say that it couldn't have happened because of the lack of historical record is an argument from silence and not a good one. It actually strengthens the case for a historical Jesus. If Christians had invented a Messiah, similar to the Roman god Mithras, both Jews and Romans would have reason to prove that Jesus was not a real person. Christians took verses from the OT and applied them to Jesus; both verses about a Messiah and verses about Yahweh. With the possible exception of Luke, the authors of the New Testament were Orthodox Jews and some of what they wrote would have been blasphemy. If first century Jews and Romans wanted to prove that Jesus was not a real person then there should be some historical document from the first century with an attempted refutation of the Massacre of the Innocents but there isn't any.
If Christians had invented a Messiah, similar to the Roman god Mithras, both Jews and Romans would have reason to prove that Jesus was not a real person. Christians took verses from the OT and applied them to Jesus; both verses about a Messiah and verses about Yahweh....If first century Jews and Romans wanted to prove that Jesus was not a real person ...
It's a horrible argument. As I pointed out both Romans and Jews would have ample motivation to prove that Jesus of Nazareth never existed and the Massacre of the Innocence would have been a perfect opportunity for them to prove Christianity was based on a copy-cat Christ. But, there is no attempt from either the Jews or Romans of the first century to refute the historicity of the event. It is a poorly thought out argument from silence which doesn't support what skeptics wish it did but refutes the very point they try to make. I've read that Josephus relied heavily on the Greek historian Nicolaus of Damascus when writing about King Herod. Nicolaus was a friend of Herod's and Herod would have little reason to volunteer this information since it had to do with the murder of innocent children which he had ordered.Actually, it is a pretty good argument.
If there was a "Massacre of Innocents," it would have been of historical significance, unlike the historical Jesus.
If the massacre is not in Josephus's History of Palestine or history of Herod, it probably didn't happen.
Many Christians believe that the KJV is the best translation and some believe it's the only one to use
Actually, it is a very logical argument. The Jews had no motivation to defame Jesus in the first century. The Romans had no reason either, as it simply would not have made a difference, and they would have much more to worry about.It's a horrible argument. As I pointed out both Romans and Jews would have ample motivation to prove that Jesus of Nazareth never existed and the Massacre of the Innocence would have been a perfect opportunity for them to prove Christianity was based on a copy-cat Christ. But, there is no attempt from either the Jews or Romans of the first century to refute the historicity of the event. It is a poorly thought out argument from silence which doesn't support what skeptics wish it did but refutes the very point they try to make. I've read that Josephus relied heavily on the Greek historian Nicolaus of Damascus when writing about King Herod. Nicolaus was a friend of Herod's and Herod would have little reason to volunteer this information since it had to do with the murder of innocent children which he had ordered.
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As for the massacre of the innocents, there simply is no evidence at all. There is no literary evidence, nor was there any historical evidence. With an atrocity such as killing all males 2 years and younger would have certainly caused a serious revolt. Yet, we have no evidence of any resistance to such a decree. Even John the Baptist, who would have only been about six months older than Jesus, was never killed.
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Lets assume that is correct. One problem does arise. The birth story in Luke never mentions such an event. Now, I think we both can agree that Luke would not have been able to ignore an event that would have been deemed quite important (as in life or death). The lack of any mention from Luke should be considered significant.I wanted to comment on this bit of reference to history. Anyone that has studied the attitude of the Roman Empire on the populations outside of their privilege citizen class realize that brutality of innocence was common and even part of the entertainments of the era. Outside of the entertainments and conquests of the military for wealth there was no record of the small stuff that took place in remote insignificant places like Bethlehem.
As to John the Baptist it is the tradition of some texts that remain that his father knew what was about to happen and this is why John the Baptist was sent in his infancy with his mother into the wilderness. According to traditions, Zacharias was confronted that same day when he went to his duties at the temple (thinking to not draw suspicion) concerning his son and wife was executed on the steps of the temple because he claimed to not know where his son and wife had gone.
Zadok