James Bishop is not a scholar. He's an apologist. Every single reason he stated is debunked by actual scholars. Throwing un-sourced amateur articles around as as if that proves a point is a huge fail.
Here are a few rebuttals to Bishop's reasons Jesus existed by people who actually study the field, every reason he gives are apologetic non-truths.
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1. “Nothing to the Contrary”
This argument has a correct Bayesian form: Bishop says, “If Jesus really were a non-existent figure of history it would be expected that some anti-Christian group would make this known.” Translation: if
h, then it is improbable that
e, so if
mythicism, then it is improbable that
no one talked about it. That would be sound if we were talking about the 20th century. But alas, all the records of what was happening in Christian history between Paul and the early second century have been erased. Gone. Completely. So we don’t know what
any critics of Christianity were saying in those fifty to eighty years. And you can’t argue from evidence we don’t have.
This is the effect of
b, or background knowledge, on the probabilities in Bayesian reasoning. Since we know the records are lost (we don’t even have references to them), we can’t build arguments on
what was not in them. So the probability of the absence of evidence in this case is already 100% on
h, simply because of
b (see
Proving History, pp. 219-24). If Christians had preserved their records for that half century, Bishop might be in a better situation. Alas, they didn’t. One can only wonder why (
On the Historicity of Jesus, ch. 8.4). The first Christian critics we get to hear from are mid-second century, nearly a hundred years after Paul. And they only know Christian history from the Gospels. By then, there wasn’t any way they could know Jesus was made up.
Not only do we
not have any reason “it would be expected that some anti-Christian group would” mention Jesus was made up (
On the Historicity of Jesus, ch. 8.12), but we actually
do have mentions of
Christians who didn’t believe Jesus was a historical person (ibid., pp. 350-53), which demonstrate Christians tried very hard to destroy that evidence (doctoring the
Ascension of Isaiah, e.g.
OHJ, ch. 3.1; destroying all records of the sect being attacked in 2 Peter, e.g.
OHJ, pp. 351-53; declaring all Christians who challenge the historicity of the Gospels anathema, e.g.
OHJ, ch. 8.6; etc.). Which not only tells us they had something to hide, but that they were actively hiding it (e.g.,
OHJ, pp. 301-05).
Bishop also naively cites the Talmud here, evidently unaware that Talmudic Jews only knew of a Christian sect that taught Jesus had died a hundred years before Pontius Pilate (and by stoning, and in Lydda, not Jerusalem). This supposedly thorough research of Rabbis into the origins of Christianity…turned up that? This is a serious problem for someone who wants to claim historicity (
OHJ, ch. 8.1).
3. “Jesus’s crucifixion is historically certain”
Bishop bases this on his assertion that “there are many independent sources that attest to Jesus’ crucifixion.” That assertion is false. Christian apologists are confusing the word “independent” with the word “different.” A hundred
different sources attest to the existence of Hercules. But they are not
independent sources. They all derive, directly or indirectly, from the same
single source, a myth about Hercules. Who never existed.
There is in fact only one explicit source for the historicity of Jesus: the Gospel of Mark. All other sources that mention the crucifixion of Jesus as an event in earth history derive that mention from Mark, either directly (e.g. Matthew, Luke, John; Celsus; Justin; etc.) or indirectly, as Christians simply repeat the same claims in those Gospels, which all embellish and thus derive from that same one Gospel, Mark, and their critics simply believed them because they would have thought it was too self-damning to make up, and because there was no way for them to check.
When
Paul mentions the crucifixion of Jesus, he never places that event on earth. In fact, he doesn’t appear to even know about it having happened at the hands of Romans or Jews at all, but the demonic forces of evil (
OHJ, ch. 11.4, 11.7-8), just as was originally said in the Christian Gospel known as the
Ascension of Isaiah (
OHJ, ch. 3.1).
Hence even if they actually mentioned Jesus (and this is actually doubtful:
OHJ, ch. 8.9-10), Tacitus and Josephus are just repeating what Christians told them (or their informants), and those Christians were just repeating what the Gospels told them, and the Gospels are just repeating the story that first appeared in only one place: Mark. That’s not independent evidence. It’s useless.
Note that Bishop naively again cites the Talmud here as well. Which besides double-counting evidence (an obvious fallacy of reasoning), exposes his ignorance yet again, per my remarks about this source above: the Talmud records Jesus was stoned, not killed by crucifixion. He was “hung” only in the manner prescribed by Torah law: in Jewish law the corpse of all executed convicts was always to be hung up for display until sundown. Notably, if you count that as a crucifixion (and well you could), you now have to admit that it may also have been the only death Paul knew of as well, and thus we can no longer establish that Paul was referring to a Roman execution. He could even have been referring to the cosmic one portrayed in the
Ascension of Isaiah. We can’t tell. Our only source attempting to tell us is Mark. A purely literary work of outlandish mythography (
OHJ, ch. 10.4).
This means the crucifixion of Jesus is no better attested than the labors of Hercules.
That’s a problem. Don’t you think?