Okay, let me put forth my understanding again, for the 1000th time.
When it comes to the Levitical laws, Christians cannot use that to condemn gay people, because according to Christianity the Levitical laws are fufilled, otherwise pork and shellfish are also abominations. So people must turn to the NT. The NT does seem to contain some condemnation of homosexuality "at first glance", but under better examination, not necessarily. Romans 1 is talking about idolotry, and linking homosexuality to idolotry, so if a person is a Christian and still gay, how can Romans 1 being strictly about homosexuality make sense? Also it says the women changed the natural use into that against nature. And also that the men did so, but again, you've got to use "CONTEXT". It says to change the natural inclination is a sin, it says nothing about if a person is born gay or lesbian. Then they wouldn't be changing the natural inclination, because that IS their inclination. It's obvious that this verse is not about homosexuality in general, but is an adminition against the Romans for some of their homosexual prostitution practices in their temples. Hence the connection with idolotry. Same for 1 Corinthians 6 another famous basher verse, that actually is Paul admonishing the Greco-Roman practice of pedestry, not homosexuality in general. Most modern translations render 1 Corinthians 6 as either boy prostitutes or homosexual offenders. That is not all homosexuals, it's those who sleep with minors. Therefore, one cannot prove without a doubt that the NT condemns gay people. People are reaching who think it does, and want it to say that so they can justify their treatment of gays.