exchemist
Veteran Member
Oh I think it is an injunction in the gospels. One can ask why it appears there, to which I can only speculate that unlike Judaism, Christianity had no obvious base of followers and so it would have needed to convert Jews and Gentiles to survive. And of course the earliest Christians believed they had a new and important truth they wanted to convey to others, which would entail converting them. Islam has the same proselytising tradition. It seems to be Judaism that is the odd one out, but that, I suggest, is because it is inextricably linked to the idea of a Jewish race or people, in which there is a sort of "club membership" conferred through (maternal) inheritance.I am aware that this is off-topic, but why is that?
I used to do that in my evangelical days, but now I cannot really find any logical reason why I did that. That sounded like spreading Good News, but a moment of reflection shows immediately that they are actually Bad News, and that people are much better off by not knowing anything about that.
Ciao
- viole