1robin
Christian/Baptist
Two thoughts:
This is a good example of your distorting the Bible to support your presuppositions. If a Man beat his slave and the slave eventually died the loss of the slave was the punishment. In the most common example of this, a wealthy man would agree to pay off the debts of a person and that person had to work it off. The striker was now out a hundred shekels or so plus a worker. That was deemed enough. I have also read that this was in the context striking someone without intent to injure and includes accidental events. I never said God made slavery pleasant. I said he made an existing practice much more benevolent and did so for two reasons. It was already an integral part of all cultures and there was no well fare or other social programs. I am sure it still was an unpleasant experience.- for this "tame" version of slavery you're talking about, the Bible still allows owners to beat their slaves to death as long as the slave takes at least a few days to die from their wounds.
First please stop asserting that I am some kind of fan of slavery. This is cheap theatrics and an appeal to the absurd designed to provide your case with a moral high ground it can't acquire by merit. Slaves were property as was agreed by both parties. The owner usually made a substantial investment on behalf of the slave and the slave was under "contract" to do X. It is quite clear God took a literal sense of property and pared it down quite a bit. He allowed punishment and an owner/property arrangement to endure but he gave strict rules that were intended to ensure justice or at least a much more just arrangement. God did not invent slavery, he found it existent and gave some rules to make it more just. It is not God's primary mission to fix all the crap our fallen natures produce. I think he intentionally allows evil as an example of what a fallen nature results in. In fact it says that divorce and I think slavery as well were tolerated because of OUR SINFULLNESS. God hates slavery and divorce yet tolerates or allows for it because we are so screwed up that it is necessary at times.- regardless of how well the slave is treated (though I sure wouldn't want to be a slave under the system you're praising), you're still talking about owning other people as property. There are plenty of passages in Leviticus and Deuteronomy that read like "you may do _____ to your slaves, for they are your property."
If a slave has his depts. paid off and is not tied to his master by more than an arbitrary agreement then there is a great temptation to bolt. This was an economic contract of great significance to bronze age cultures. If God had indeed had the same idea or intent concerning slaves being property why did he mandate they be set free after 6 or seven years. You can't reconcile the facts and your claims God is evil. He may have not abolished some things you consider evil but that does not make him evil. Evil has a very important role in his purpose.The alternative would have been to stop people from owning other human beings as property. Exactly what "harm" do you think this would have caused? Since you say it's easy to see, I'm sure you could give us some examples.
Find me a single verse where God initiated slavery where it did not exist or one where God says slavery is good or that he likes it.And none of this changes the fact that according to the Bible, God endorsed slavery.
No, because slavery was a part of the culture that existed in NT times. God many times comments on things that are unpleasant or that are abhorrent like wars or calamity, this does not mean that God likes or prefers these things beyond necessity. I can show those slavery laws obsolete by the fact that all OT law is obsolete after Christ came.Also, you used the analogy of divorce before: that God allowed it as a temporary measure to address certain circumstances. The New Testament has Jesus declaring that this really was a temporary measure, and people shouldn't divorce any more. Can you point me to the verse where Jesus or any other Biblical figure gives a similar declaration that slavery is no longer acceptable?
New American Standard Bible (©1995)
having canceled out the certificate of debt consisting of decrees against us, which was hostile to us; and He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross
http://bible.cc/colossians/2-13.htm
This is a complex issue and I do not want to start another topic when this one can't be resolved. However it is the general consensus that all old covenant law (with the possible exception of the Decalogue) were abolished when Christ ratified the new covenant with his blood.
I really wish you would stick with what I actually said. I said that there were benevolent advantages to both parties and that God made a preexistent concept more benevolent than it was. I never said that specifically technically owning people is inherently benevolent. It could be argued as such if what slavery was at that time was more certain.If you really think that any form of owning other people as property is "benevolent", then I'd say your moral sense is so warped that it's useless.
The old south slavery was not operating within the OT covenant but it would have broken almost all of them.Exactly which Old Testament laws did 19th Century American slavery break, and how did they break them? How much would they have had to dial things back for them to be A-OK by the rules that God set out? Please be specific.
That would depend on what servant meant in that culture.Like I mentioned above, there are many Biblical passages where they also explicitly state things about the slave/servant like "he is your property." In these cases, it's unreasonable to interpret the word as "servant" as opposed to "slave".
Agreed and exactly what I was indicating above. If you were as reasonable over all as you were here there would be no contention IMO.Also, I think it's worth pointing out that our own word "servant" has changed a bit over the centuries, too. IMO, a first-century concept of servitude would be closer to serfdom (which was itself a form of slavery) than to the modern idea of freely chosen employment.