If it cannot be demonstrated to be objective, then isn't that exactly what it is?
Objective morality can easily be demonstrated. Subjective morality is relativistic.
Moral Relativism Refuted by A.L.
Not according to the apologists I've encountered. They're claiming that objective morality is not to be questioned. They feel that to apply their human reasoning to divine revelation would be to question God himself.
I dabble in apologetics, but I am no apologist. If REASON leads to question God, their faith system is in error.
INTERNAL ASSISTANCE: God's grace moves the will to CHOOSE to believe. Grace does not destroy nature but perfects it.
EXTERNAL ASSISTANCE: The act of faith is made in accord with REASON. Most of the atheists I encounter are constantly making false assumptions about the nature of God which has to broken down before you get to the question/challenge, resulting in massive amounts of explanation which they reject anyway.
If you can cite a scripture to answer this question, feel free to do so. And while you're at it, please locate one that condemns cannibalism as well.
You demand a scripture that says people are instinctively moral to do the right thing by pulling a stranger out of a burning car? What's wrong with you?
There is no scripture condemning cannibalism. It is instinctively abhorrent. The Bible was never intended to list every single moral precept. Cannibalism violates the dignity of the human person, even if they are dead. This has been explained so what this proves is that you ignore replies that refute such idiotic positions.
So you're asserting that mass slaughter isn't objectively immoral, correct?
You are ignoring the context, and can't comprehend the post.
And exactly what sort of fallacy is it to assert that an all-loving god that orders mass slaughters seems utterly incongruous?
And
exactly what sort of fallacy is it to assert that bombing of cities such as Berlin in WW2 seems utterly incongruous?
And
exactly what sort of fallacy is it to assert that society orders the execution of serial rapist killers "seems utterly incongruous"? Please re-read post #66
"They have set up kings, but not by me: they have made princes, and I knew it not: of their silver and their gold have they made them idols, that they may be cut off."
~
Hosea 8:4
They set up princes and God didn't know about it? What were you just saying about God's omniscience? I forgot.
It means "they" set up princess without God. You are bible twisting to force fit it into an agenda. .
Q. - Did Jesus die to absolve the Canaanites of their sins? Or was the Grace of God® never extended to those humans? And if so ... why not?
Jesus died to redeem the human race, in both directions of time. Redemption, salvation, justification and absolution are related but not the same. You can't comprehend the difference because you are not ready.
Serial rape? The Bible is
practically literally an Instruction Manual of Serial Rape:
"When you go out to war against your enemies and the Lord, your God, delivers them into your power, so that you take captives, if you see a beautiful woman among the captives and become so enamored of her that you wish to have her as a wife, and so you take her home to your house, she must shave her head, cut her nails, lay aside her captive’s garb, and stay in your house, mourning her father and mother for a full month. After that, you may come to her, and you shall be her husband and she shall be your wife. If later on you lose your liking for her, you shall give her her freedom, if she wishes it; you must not sell her for money. Do not enslave her, since you have violated her." ~
Deuteronomy 21:10-14 (NABRE)
So God has revealed portions of his Divine Nature that make it
acceptable to lust after and then marry a female captive under compulsion, "take her to wife" until you're tired of raping her, and then send her packing after you've
admittedly violated her? Are you seriously going to assert that
this is objectively moral
under any circumstances?
Unless of course, the rape is sanctioned by God, correct? God clearly has no issues with "violating" a female captive, correct? There
are scenarios revealed by God where (according to his divine nature, obviously) serial rape is
perfectly acceptable?
One is merely obliged to wait one month, correct?
Or is "marry under compulsion"
not a euphemism for serial rape?
Another "gotcha" verse found on every fist shaking web site and it gets tiresome. The particular passage you have quoted here refers to women who have been taken captive as a consequence of war. Off the top of my head I would say it has something to do with giving them children who would take care of them because if they had lost their men as consequence of war, they would have no one to look after them. In addition, any children they did have would be cared for. Bear in mind the state and charities did care for widows and orphans when Deuteronomy was written. This Law would teach responsibility for women widowed and children left fatherless as a consequence of war. In His compassion, God did not compel men to remain married to women they did not love, or who did not love them and did not want to be married to them.
And yet
when Yahweh orders one of his adherents to sacrifice his own child as a burnt offering, said adherent is congratulated for not even raising an eyebrow?
Of course God wants a child sacrifice! Of course! What could be more natural?
"Thank God I'm not an Amalekite! Otherwise this wouldn't be all objectively moral 'n stuff!"
How does any of that detestable BS possibly count as "objective morality?" So far, the best you can offer are rationalizations that all hinge on Divine Fiat, correct?
It's not a sin if God commands it
in this case, because God - being our Creator - has the prerogative to take whichever life He chooses (e.g., Job said, "God giveth and God taketh away").
The notion of God being a Fat Marshmallow in the Sky is your problem, not mine.
Killing becomes murder when it is done in improper circumstances and with malice. Human beings do not have the right to kill fellow created human beings, except under very limited circumstances, and never the right to murder (which is why abortion is a grave sin - one of the worst imaginable, in my opinion).
Child sacrifice was a sin under Old Testament Law, but this was before the Law was given to Moses. Abraham's very agony would lead one to believe that he understood the wrongness of it; hence the existential agony. But in this instance Abraham was tested in his obedience to God in the face of the most unimaginable conflict in his own mind. In effect, God was seeing if Abraham loved Him more than even his own flesh and blood (for
Abraham's sake, not God's - God knew what Abraham would do all along). There are numerous trials in life which make no sense to us, and test our faith and trust in God. These can all work for good, if we allow them to be used in our life and spiritual journey. Catholicism is the only religion which gives a cogent and sensible reason for the place and purpose of suffering in this life. That gets into
very deep waters, though, so I ask that we just let that lie.
Death itself is a curse - one that God Himself was willing to experience on the Cross in order to save humanity. Whatever God is willing to - in effect - "dish out" He is willing to take upon Himself as well. A fact conveniently overlooked in the ubiquitous attacks with regard to the "problem of evil" . . .(atheists can't even define it with any consistency)
Abraham had already had a relationship with God; that was prior to this incident, so it was a matter of choosing the God he knew, even though it seemed unimaginable that He would request such a thing. (Gen 22:12). The New Testament also tells us that Abraham believed in God to such an extent that he thought God would raise Isaac from the dead, since He had already promised descendants through him (Heb 11:17-19). Of course, the whole incident is a profound metaphor of Jesus' death on the Cross: God the Father's Son. (the ram's horns caught in a thicket is metaphorical to Jesus' crowning of thorns)