Okay, someone please follow the questions and give your answers.
1) Do you agree that the word Elokim appears over 2000 times in the bible?
2) Do you agree that in almost EVERY instance that it appears - it is associated with a singular verb/adjective except in a few places. I think it's only like five off the top of my head.
3) Now, for all the people that say that is is believed that Jews believed in multiple gods, please explain the 2,000 other times its with a singular verb/adjective. Let's start with the first sentence in the bible.
4) Is it possible that you're guessing because you don't understand the language? Did you know that hebrew has two types of plurals? One specifically to denote a pair. Assuming you didn't know this, how can you be so sure on a hebrew grammar question such as why is elokim plural?
So, what's with Elokim?
But, of course, your (somewhat rhetorical) 'questions' are entirely appropriate. Too many find it too easy to spout dogma-driven mantra and resist evidence with a religious zeal.
One interesting theory coutesy of Hoffman, by the way, becomes even more compelling when one understands the dept Hebrew owe to Phoenician.
One possibility is that the word may have come from the older Akkadian or Phonecian word ilum, which, related to the Hebrew el, meant "god", not "gods". If so, elhym is the Hebrew ilum, that is, Hebrew God, and there is no puzzle.