benign6
Member
(1) Mark 5:1-2 tells of Jesus being met by one man possessed by an unclean spirit. But, the parallel passage in Matthew 8:28 tells us that there were two with unclean spirits
(2) Jesus was son of God -or- a son of man ??? John:1:51And he saith unto him,Verily, verily, I say unto you, Hereafter ye shall see heaven open, and the angels of God ascending and descending upon the Son of man & this is in RED ink in Red-Letter-Bible
(3) Mark 10:46-47 tells us that one blind man Bartimaeus was crying out to Jesus for help & an unclean spirit. And in Matthew 20:29-30 we read that there were two blind men & devils (pleural).
(4) Read Matthew 27:9 and notice the quotation Jeremiah. But the quote is actually found in Zech. 11:12-13 and not found in the book of Jeremiah at all. Did Matthew get his Old Testament mixed up?
(5) James 2:20-24 tells us that Abraham was justified by works and Gal. 2:16 clearly says a man is not justified by works. Which is it?
(6) I Kings 6:1 says that Solomon began building the temple 480 years after the Exodus from Egypt. But, in Paul's message in Acts 13:16-22, he gives a time span in the history of Israel of 573 years for the same events. Where are the missing 93 years?
(7) MT 12:40, John:1:51, Was Jesus son of man -or- son of God ???
(8) II Chron. 22:2 says Ahaziah was 42 when he began to reign. Yet, II Kings 8:26 says he was 22 years old when he began to reign. Which is it? 22 or 42?
(9) 1 John 5:7 (AV)"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the FATHER,
the WORD, and the HOLY GHOST: and these three are one." has been removed in revised
version (RSV) --------------- so it comes closer to Quran (Quran:4:171)
(10) For God so loved the world, that he gave his only BEGOTTEN son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life." (John 3:16 - AV) , Now word BEGOTTEN has been removed from in revised standard version saying that it was interpolation. ------------ Same as Quran said 1428 years back.(Quran:19:88--92) & (112:3)
(11) Every Bible in every language, prior to 1952(when the RSV first appeared), had these verses:-
"So then the Lord Jesus, after he had spoken to them, was TAKEN UP INTO HEAVEN, and sat down at the right hand of God."(Mark 16:19)
"While he blessed them, he parted from them, and was CARRIED UP INTO HEAVEN." (Luke 24:51)
These verses(regarding ascension) were converted to mere footnotes in RSV published in 1952 (i.e. NOT considered part of bible). & Mark 16 was made to end at verse 8.
Then again they changed RSV & brought those verses back to their previous position.
It is an old, old game. The Jews and the Christians have been editing their "Book of God" from its very inception.
(12) Scofield Reference Bible" thought it appropriate to spell the Hebrew word "Elah" (meaning God) alternatively as "Alah" in English translation, but decided to use one L. Later they removed this term Alah from "Scofield Reference Bible.
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(13) They used to write according to in beginning of chapters e.g., The Gospel According to St.Matthew BUT Matthew was not the author of the first Gospel which bears his name.
Matthew 9:9 "And as Jesus passed forth thence, HE (JESUS) saw a man, named Matthew, sitting at the receipt of custom: and HE (JESUS) saith unto HIM (MATTHEW), follow ME (JESUS) And HE (MATTHEW) arose, and followed HIM (JESUS)." ---- WHY He & NOT I so a third person is writing, NOT Matthew.
ST. JOHN 21:24. This is the disciple which testifieth of these things, and wrote these things:
and we know that his testimony is true.
ST. JOHN 19:35. And he that saw it bare record, and his record is true: and he knoweth that he saith true, that ye might believe --- 3rd party account, NOT St John himself writing it.
(2) Jesus was son of God -or- a son of man ??? John:1:51And he saith unto him,Verily, verily, I say unto you, Hereafter ye shall see heaven open, and the angels of God ascending and descending upon the Son of man & this is in RED ink in Red-Letter-Bible
(3) Mark 10:46-47 tells us that one blind man Bartimaeus was crying out to Jesus for help & an unclean spirit. And in Matthew 20:29-30 we read that there were two blind men & devils (pleural).
(4) Read Matthew 27:9 and notice the quotation Jeremiah. But the quote is actually found in Zech. 11:12-13 and not found in the book of Jeremiah at all. Did Matthew get his Old Testament mixed up?
(5) James 2:20-24 tells us that Abraham was justified by works and Gal. 2:16 clearly says a man is not justified by works. Which is it?
(6) I Kings 6:1 says that Solomon began building the temple 480 years after the Exodus from Egypt. But, in Paul's message in Acts 13:16-22, he gives a time span in the history of Israel of 573 years for the same events. Where are the missing 93 years?
(7) MT 12:40, John:1:51, Was Jesus son of man -or- son of God ???
(8) II Chron. 22:2 says Ahaziah was 42 when he began to reign. Yet, II Kings 8:26 says he was 22 years old when he began to reign. Which is it? 22 or 42?
(9) 1 John 5:7 (AV)"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the FATHER,
the WORD, and the HOLY GHOST: and these three are one." has been removed in revised
version (RSV) --------------- so it comes closer to Quran (Quran:4:171)
(10) For God so loved the world, that he gave his only BEGOTTEN son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life." (John 3:16 - AV) , Now word BEGOTTEN has been removed from in revised standard version saying that it was interpolation. ------------ Same as Quran said 1428 years back.(Quran:19:88--92) & (112:3)
(11) Every Bible in every language, prior to 1952(when the RSV first appeared), had these verses:-
"So then the Lord Jesus, after he had spoken to them, was TAKEN UP INTO HEAVEN, and sat down at the right hand of God."(Mark 16:19)
"While he blessed them, he parted from them, and was CARRIED UP INTO HEAVEN." (Luke 24:51)
These verses(regarding ascension) were converted to mere footnotes in RSV published in 1952 (i.e. NOT considered part of bible). & Mark 16 was made to end at verse 8.
Then again they changed RSV & brought those verses back to their previous position.
It is an old, old game. The Jews and the Christians have been editing their "Book of God" from its very inception.
(12) Scofield Reference Bible" thought it appropriate to spell the Hebrew word "Elah" (meaning God) alternatively as "Alah" in English translation, but decided to use one L. Later they removed this term Alah from "Scofield Reference Bible.
====================
(13) They used to write according to in beginning of chapters e.g., The Gospel According to St.Matthew BUT Matthew was not the author of the first Gospel which bears his name.
Matthew 9:9 "And as Jesus passed forth thence, HE (JESUS) saw a man, named Matthew, sitting at the receipt of custom: and HE (JESUS) saith unto HIM (MATTHEW), follow ME (JESUS) And HE (MATTHEW) arose, and followed HIM (JESUS)." ---- WHY He & NOT I so a third person is writing, NOT Matthew.
ST. JOHN 21:24. This is the disciple which testifieth of these things, and wrote these things:
and we know that his testimony is true.
ST. JOHN 19:35. And he that saw it bare record, and his record is true: and he knoweth that he saith true, that ye might believe --- 3rd party account, NOT St John himself writing it.