"Word of God" & discrepancies???

[benign6]

Seriously, the Quran also contains passages about forcing women to have sex with them.
Attempting to judge the Bible by finding one verse that you don't agree with in the Bible shows that you are trying justify your presupposed conclusion about the Bible.
Does the creator of mankind not also have the power/authority to kill its creation? Definitely.

One verse ??? please read initial 3 posts. Do they look like one verse to u?

& even this story of Genesis 38 is NOT one verse.

I have NO intension to defame Jesus(peace b upon him) or God(God forbid). If i'll do that i'll NOT be a Muslim. I'm just trying to prove that he was a beloved messenger of God, who was born miraculously & was given miracles like all other prophets were given miracles.

But his miracles were so impressive that ppl mistook him as son of God. & then to justify this mis-belief they made changes in original revelation which God sent to Jesus via holy Spirit(Angel).( But yet they FAILED to eliminate ALL the evidence.)

Same holy Spirit that was sent to Moses ISAIAH 63:11 Then he remembered the days of old, Moses, and his people, saying, Where is he that brought them up out of the sea with the shepherd of his flock? where is he that put his holy Spirit within him?

& same holy Spirit was sent to Muhammad .(Quran:16:102 Say, the holy Spirit has brought revelation from your God is truth, in order to strenghten those who believe and as a guide and good news to Muslims)

The "comforter' promised was Muhammad. ppl mis-took holy Spirit for 'comforter". But holy Spirit HAD ALREADY COME why would he be prophecised ???

Prophecy is for a person WHO HAS NOT YET COME.

"Comforter" has been NAMED as מחמדים (read right to left) = MAHMAD’IM
in hebrew, where "im" is pleural of respect its traditional to call respectful person by pleural in hebrew,arabic,urdu etc. Translators translated this NAME as "Altogether lovely" instead of writing name as a name. They made adjective of it.


In "Scofield Reference Bible" they wrote translation of word אלהים (read right to left) = Allah'ym as "ALAH" but then they realised resemblance with name of muslim God & changed it to "Elah". I have picture of that page with "Alah". But i can't post it here coz i've not completed 100 posts yet !!!!

 

[Rolling_Stone]

So...what's your point?

 

[kmkemp]

Obedience is definitely good BUT clearly story tells that when Er died , his brother was supposed to impregnete Er's wife & when his brother did not do it & wasted his semen on ground, God slew him.


what moral lesson u get.That when wife of ur brother dies without a child , then it is ur duty to impregnate his wife, otherwise u'll be sinful ?????????


For God sake admit these r human additions/alterations & these CAN NOT be words of God.

It was a law of the day. It was disobeyed.

 

[JayHawes]

Atleast read what i have posted, 3 of yours points i dicuss.

Also can you give a biblical course for the story you quote about GOd slaying a man for not ompregnating someone....

I notice that you do not understand biblical phrases that much....hmm....you misinterpret many of Jesus' words.

Go one "contradiction" by one. And let us discuss them.

 

[Darkness]

I like you benign6. You can see the acts of cruelty in the Bible, which many blind themselves to. I only hope you don't make the same mistake and say your book is free from all evil.

 

[benign6]

(14) the word "Bible" is unknown within the pages of the Bible. God forgot to give a title to "HIS" books
Actually the word bible is in the the Bible. Matthew 1:1 starts out reading "The book of the generation of Jesus Christ, the son of David, the son of Abraham"
The greek word translated book, is: bivbloß Biblos (bib'-los); Noun Neuter, Strong #: 976

1. a written book, a roll, a scroll

OK- lets agree to ur argument, though this word just means "book"

(1) Mark 5:1-2 tells of Jesus being met by one man possessed by an unclean spirit. But, the parallel passage in Matthew 8:28 tells us that there were two with unclean spirits
The man in this passage was possed by a spirit names Legion, which is actually more than one spirit (devil). When Matthew 8:28 reads "Mt 8:28And when he was come to the other side into the country of the Gergesenes, there met him two possessed with devils, coming out of the tombs, exceeding fierce, so that no man might pass by that way.
The word translated two means twain, or torn apart. This verse is referring to the mindset of the possed man. That he at times acted humane, and at other times he acted as a brute beast. He was twain, torn apart, by this devil called legion. There is no contradiction.

How does Two possessd with devils means two devils??????????????
Even if i agree with u then Then one devil in one verse & devils in other ????????????????????
MK 5:2 And when he was come out of the ship, immediately there met him out of the tombs a man with an unclean spirit,
MT 8:28 And when he was come to the other side into the country of the Gergesenes, there met him two possessed with devils, coming out of the tombs, exceeding fierce, so that no man might pass by that way.

(2) Jesus was son of God -or- a son of man ??? John:1:51”And he saith unto him,Verily, verily, I say unto you, Hereafter ye shall see heaven open, and the angels of God ascending and descending upon the Son of man” & this is in RED ink in Red-Letter-Bible
The phrases 'Son of God' and 'Son of Man', have meanings. The phrase Son of Man signifies ones servitude to mankind, those who live for God. Many Prophets such as Daniel and Ezekiel were sons of man.

Thats exactly what i'm trying to say that son of throughtout bible does NOT mean really son of BUT this is either human addition or metaphore for ANGELS & Prophets.
So Jeses was PROPHET of (son of) God & ppl mis-took him literally as son of God.

Angels as son of God:JOB 1:6,JOB 2:1,
non-Angels/Prophets as son of God:GEN 6:2,ROM 8:14
http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/showpost.php?p=849130&postcount=1

(2)Jesus was son of God -or- a son of man ??? John:1:51”And he saith unto him,Verily, verily, I say unto you, Hereafter ye shall see heaven open, and the angels of God ascending and descending upon the Son of man” & this is in RED ink in Red-Letter-Bible

The phrases 'Son of God' and 'Son of Man', have meanings. The phrase Son of Man signifies ones servitude to mankind, those who live for God. Many Prophets such as Daniel and Ezekiel were sons of man.

The phrase Son of God, specially entitled to Jesus signifies diety with God. Since God is; The Father, The Son and and the Holy Spirit. Jesus being the Son of God, is claiming diety as being God. The Jews understood that the "Son of God" was also God.
Joh 10:33 -The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
Joh 10:36 -Do you say of him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, `You blaspheme,` because I said, `I am the Son of God?`
Jesus although being God, came to serve God by serving mankind. He fulfilled both titles. This is not contradictory.

u missed middle 2 verses !!!!!!!! John 10:34 & 35
JN 10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
JN 10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;

these imply:-
Because Jews scripture called those on whon God sent His word as gods so why can I (Jesus) call myself as son of god, coz i too received word of God.


so ppl of those days were in habbit of calling PROPHETs of God (given word of God)as gods or son of god.So these words made their way into their holy books. Even ANGELs were son of God & many other pious ppl were son of God & early humans on earth too(GEN 6:2).

 

[JayHawes]

OK- lets agree to ur argument, though this word just means "book"

How does Two possessd with devils means two devils??????????????
Even if i agree with u then Then one devil in one verse & devils in other ????????????????????
MK 5:2 And when he was come out of the ship, immediately there met him out of the tombs a man with an unclean spirit,
MT 8:28 And when he was come to the other side into the country of the Gergesenes, there met him two possessed with devils, coming out of the tombs, exceeding fierce, so that no man might pass by that way.

Stop adding words to the verse and read it as it says. It does not say two devils. As I've explained before the man was possed with a spirit called Legion, who was many devils. You just can't seem to understand the translation. IN regular enlgish the verse is this "ther met him a man torn apart, possed with a devils. That UNclean Spirit, called Legion, was comprised of many spirits.

Thats exactly what i'm trying to say that son of throughtout bible does NOT mean really son of BUT this is either human addition or metaphore for ANGELS & Prophets.
So Jeses was PROPHET of (son of) God & ppl mis-took him literally as son of God.

Angels as son of God:JOB 1:6,JOB 2:1,
non-Angels/Prophets as son of God:GEN 6:2,ROM 8:14

Stop separating the phrase. Both phrases mean something different. Son of Man, means what i said it did. Son of God, means diety. The Jews and Christians of Jesus' day clearly understood this.

Joh 10:33 -The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
Joh 10:36 -Do you say of him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, `You blaspheme,` because I said, `I am the Son of God?`

You seem to ignore that fact that Jesus said, he was the son of God (and it's not corrupt). The Jews here understood that the phrase Son of God, meant diety with God. YOu just seem to overlook that.

u missed middle 2 verses !!!!!!!! John 10:34 & 35

JN 10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
JN 10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;

these imply:-
Because Jews scripture called those on whon God sent His word as gods so why can I (Jesus) call myself as son of god, coz i too received word of God.


so ppl of those days were in habbit of calling PROPHETs of God (given word of God)as gods or son of god.So these words made their way into their holy books. Even ANGELs were son of God & many other pious ppl were son of God & early humans on earth too(GEN 6:2).

You dont even understand what Jesus was saying. Jesus was quoting Psmals 82, which was referring to Israeli Judges, not the prophets. God himself called these men elohim, which in its context means judges. This same title is applied to Moses, becuase he was made a god (judge) to Pharoah.

Jesus brought this up as proof that if God would call the Israeli judges gods, why did they anger when he called himself the Son of God, and to make himself God.

You still though, seemed to ignore the vereses that proove that Jesus said he was the Son of God, and which prooves the phrase "son of God" means that Jesus is God.

 

[JayHawes]

Angels are called the sons of God (Gen 6:2) refers to angels, not men as you said. Another time in Job 1:1, the sons of God show up again. But of course, since you scriptures denies that Allah has any son, you must also deny the existsance of angels then? I think not, but your religion still seems to deny this phrase.

 

[benign6]

......, who was many devils. .............. a devils. ..........................,.

u need to learn singular & pleural again.

You dont even understand what Jesus was saying. Jesus was quoting Psmals 82, which was referring to Israeli Judges, not the prophets.

Were these judges given word of God.???
JN 10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken.

 

[sojourner]

Obedience is definitely good BUT clearly story tells that when Er died , his brother was supposed to impregnete Er's wife & when his brother did not do it & wasted his semen on ground, God slew him.


what moral lesson u get.That when wife of ur brother dies without a child , then it is ur duty to impregnate his wife, otherwise u'll be sinful ?????????


For God sake admit these r human additions/alterations & these CAN NOT be words of God.

First of all, this is the kind of theological garbage you end up with when you don't stop to understand the culture out of which the story comes. In that culture, it was the duty of the younger son to impregnate the widow of a dead older brother, in order to produce heirs. This satisfied the law of primogeniture, which was a cornerstone of that society. it also helped to satisfy the covenant, which promised 1) land and 2) progeny. No offspring, no progeny. No progeny, no covenant.

Second, we're not claiming that the Bible contains the literal words of God. You're arguing a straw man. The Bible is the account of the relationship of God and God's people, from the perspective of those people.

 

[benign6]

Second, we're not claiming that the Bible contains the literal words of God.

May b u don't, But many christians do believe that bible is word of God.

 

[James the Persian]

May b u don't, But many christians do believe that bible is word of God.

But many more do not - at least not in the way you assume in your argument. The overwhelming majority of Christrians (the biggest church - Roman Catholic, second biggest -Orthodox, the Oriental Orthodox, the Assyrians, some Protestants) all agree that it is the divinely inspired writing of human beings. It is the most important written portion of the Tradition handed to the Church by the Apostles, not the literal word of God. You simply cannot take a minority position (for that is what it is) as your premise and expect your argument to hold any water at all if you apply it to the majority of us who disagree with that view.

James

 

[neves]

But many more do not - at least not in the way you assume in your argument. The overwhelming majority of Christrians (the biggest church - Roman Catholic, second biggest -Orthodox, the Oriental Orthodox, the Assyrians, some Protestants) all agree that it is the divinely inspired writing of human beings. It is the most important written portion of the Tradition handed to the Church by the Apostles, not the literal word of God. You simply cannot take a minority position (for that is what it is) as your premise and expect your argument to hold any water at all if you apply it to the majority of us who disagree with that view.

James

when some parts say that Jesus is the literal son of God... you take it as is... how do we know which part is unembroidered and which part is not...?

oh and by "you" I mean christian in general

 

[sojourner]

You might want to stop putting all those filthy words into his mouth… his head is going to explode...

Well...why not? His argument certainly has...

 

[sojourner]

when some parts say that Jesus is the literal son of God... you take it as is... how do we know which part is unembroidered and which part is not...?

oh and by "you" I mean christian in general

Just because we accept the truth of the Bible does not compel it to be the literal words of God.

 

[sojourner]

That is the biggest filth you think God does in the Bible? Not the genocides recorded, but that he "created" a son for Himself?

God didn't create a son. Jesus is eternally begotten of God. Big theological difference. If we're going to dispel the argument, we have to argue from the same theological stance presented by the Bible.

 

[benign6]

when some parts say that Jesus is the literal son of God... you take it as is... how do we know which part is unembroidered and which part is not...?

No part says Jesus was LITERALLY son of God.

It's only human conjecture that they believe Jesus as literal son of God, while Angels & other prophets & even judges have been called as son of God in bible.



i don't get what verses told them NOT to believe other sons as real son of God !!!!but adopted sons.

Yes there r verses saying "begotten son" BUT these have been REMOVED from many VERSIONs of bible by christian scholars themselves.

 

[Ronald]

No u missed THE LEASON. Read carefully. This book tells that God killed a person for NOT bearing illigal child with wife of his brother....... Read again & u'll know.


In other words, if he would have "completed" sleeping with his brother's wife till the passage of SEED , then, according to this leason, God would be happy with him (God forbid).

How sad, your interpretation of scripture. May - Y H V H - forgive your mis-informed Gnosis.

Shalom

 

[sojourner]

i don't get

This phrase speaks VOLUMES.

 

[Sonic247]

The only apperant contradiction you listed involve numbers and years, (their is explanations Edwin R. Thiele's book- The mysterious numbers of Hebrew kings goes really in depth) and your saying thats proof that the Bible was altered, what would the motavation for that be if you think the Bible was altered wouldn't they alter the verses about the diety of Christ only. Why would they alter the number of years in Kings or chronicles, and they weren't that dumb, they know that certain things are repeated in king and chronicles if they did change them it was they would change them in both places And he is the Son of Man and the Son of God, read the book of Daniel to learn more about the Son of Man. But things like, "there was two blind men not one" are not contradictions, they just show they didn't sit down together and decide what to write, like if I said I met the president today or I met the president and his three secret service agents today, either way I wouldn't be lying.