This is an argument from ignorance.
Sorry been so long…I’ve been indisposed.
First off, thanks for responding. Second I would ask that you show a modicum of respect for the other person’s perspective.
If one wishes to have a productive and instructive conversation about a subject matter it’s not wise to lead off with a statement which declares a person to be wrong. It’s more prudent - the more perceptive minds will know this - to allow the person to discover this for themselves by easing them into that discovery through explanation first.
The fact remains that naturalism is the most likely scenario we have now and it's the most supported by the evidence.
The most likely scenario for what? Science itself shows that there is portions of reality that we experience that it is incapable of shedding light on and naturalism cannot account for.
If you want to contest that, then you need evidence, not pseudo-philosophical rhetoric.
Sigh- I’ve been down this road before. What's your criteria for evidence? Science itself has provided the evidence! And how do you apply pseudo-philosophical to what I've said specifically? Or is that simply an argument from ignorance?
My response was more relevant to my point. Your question was not.
Um, shouldn't your point be relevant to my question? You know, the question you responded to, presumably for a relevant reason?
setarcos said:
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The truth of spatiotemporal events is not contingent upon their ability to be demonstrated.
Our ability to call them true is, though.
What does simply calling something true or not true have to do with reality?
I can tell you I feel wonderful. That doesn't make it true or even demonstrably true but it does self-evidently demonstrate your limited ability to determine reality.
1) It has demonstrated itself to be the most likely description of reality given our current evidence, so it's unrealistic to make claims that are incompatible with it.
Consider what has been called the “Naturalistic Fallacy”…
When the conclusion expresses what ought to be, based only on what is, or what ought not to be, based on what is not. This is very common, and most people never see the problem with these kinds of assertions due to accepted social and moral norms. This bypasses reason and we fail to ask why something that is,
ought to be that way.
You may think it’s unrealistic but that would be irrational since reality has yet to be determined.
It’s already been demonstrated by the scientific community that the scientific method is limited in its ability to determine and describe all of reality. Since the scientific method is the primary if not sole tool for examination of what is real we might conclude then that naturalism cannot describe all of reality. Not only that but we may say that naturalism cannot describe reality as it is but can only model reality with a limited capacity, with the realization that our experience of reality exceeds sciences ability to determine.
It is of course possible that your naturalism is not my naturalism since there are different versions in circulation, including theological naturalism, so it might be best here to define terms.
How do you define naturalism and what is natural?
2) Not relevant to the thread, .
Not relevant to the thread? Naturalism touts its ability to explain/describe all that reality consists of. Yet it cannot prove this. Sounds faith based to me.
2 although I think it has generally debunked the existence of the non-natural given how it has investigated supernatural claims and repeatedly demonstrated them to be rooted in natural phenomena.
This would be a form of the confirmation bias fallacy. Since scientific inquiry has determined many supernatural claims to be "rooted in natural phenomena" it is probable that "all" claims are likely rooted in the same. This is where we would bring in a "science of the gaps" so to speak. Science can't explain it now, but it will eventually.
The fact of the matter is that there are a significant percentage of phenomena which have been scientifically investigated, sometimes during the event, which science has not been able to resolve with a natural explanation. As I've said...que "science of the gaps". There are also many events which science dismisses simply because scientists cannot figure out how to test a uniquely unrepeatable event beyond the testimony of the experiencer.
3) Depends on what you mean by this. There are the laws of physics, for instance.
"Laws" in science are a bit of a misnomer. No physical laws have proofs. All physical laws are probabilistic collections of many experiments. There are no proofs that any particular law cannot be at any point something other than what they have been determined to be at the moment of experimental determination. It is absolutely within the realm of possibility that tomorrow the "law" of gravity will change for some unknown realistic reason and cause chaotic cascades of effect in the universe.
Actually, if you ask any science technician or professor you will find that on occasion they have ran into anomalous results in there experimentation. Usually chocked up to faulty instrumentation, misinterpretation, or control mistakes by the scientist....but, what if, just what if, occasionally those anomalous results were accurate, even if unrepeatable, glimpses into the true nature of reality? Science has to ignore them because it’s often unknown or unproven how they happened and thus how to repeat the results. If you don't know where to begin, how can you?
A statement, for the sake of logical analysis, must be considered either true or false.
Okay, we take that as a logical axiom? And?
If you're doing probability analysis like risk management or decision theory, this is less relevant,
It’s not relevant at all. The logical application of probability analysis has nothing to do with certitude...unless you reach unopposed numbers so astronomical that probability becomes a kind of "Hobson's choice" with only one logical outcome.
if you're deciding what is true then logic is the tool you use.
Sure if certitude is achievable -which it often isn’t. Since reality deals with indeterminable certitudes at its core logic becomes impotent in its presence and must be confined to our ability to define certitudes through “if/then” and “given that” statements on a finitely framed scale.
I think you’re making the mistake of equating logic with probability. They are not equal terms. Actually they are the antithesis of each other. One deals in certainties, the other in uncertainties. We may however apply the proposed certainties obtained with logic to how we make necessary choices with uncertainty. I call this framing reality.
For instance, ancient hunter/gatherers might choose to avoid foods or water sources that seemed to kill those of their group that first tried them. That would be a logical choice given probabilistic uncertainty, but the choice would not be one of logical certainty - the food/water might not have been what killed them, or they might have had an allergy that others do not for instance.
Even in the face of high correlative probability it might not even be the most logical choice to make. If say, for instance, you were about to die of thirst and no other prospects were available nor time to find any, even though you saw almost all others die that drank, given no other options the most logical choice to attempt to live would be to take the chance and drink.
If a statement is not true, then it is false. If a statement cannot be demonstrated to be likely to be true, then it cannot be taken to be true. That means that it is going to be taken to be false, because it has to be assigned truth or falsity and it has not shown itself to be true. Since it cannot be called true, it has to be called false.
I think if we analyze your statement one assertion at a time you'll see you've made some logical fallacies.
According to your statement…
[A is NOT true. Therefore A IS false.] This can be taken as axiomatic and I agree.
Here’s where I think you start to stray from logic….
[IF “A Statement” cannot be demonstrated to be LIKELY true THEN “Statement” CANNOT be taken to BE true.]
“CANNOT be true” does not follow logically from “cannot be demonstrated to be LIKELY true” Since for this to be true your demonstration would have to include logical certitude about what can be true not simply likely true or false. If your demonstration cannot include logical certitude about what can be definitively demonstrated true or false then likely versus not likely cannot be definitively defined and likely cannot logically determine certainty.
[ “Statement” is going to be taken as false] Taking a statement to BE false does not logically follow from taking that “statement” to be LIKELY false.
[because it has to be assigned truth or falsity] It may have to be in a state of being true or false but that state does not logically follow from your presumptions of what that state MUST be. Likelihood does not equate to certitude. Especially if how one defines what is likely may be flawed. Schrodinger’s thought experiment might be relevant here.
So…basically your statement says, the thing has to be either true or false. Since the thing can’t be shown definitively to be true or false but we have data indicating that the thing is probably false we can logically deduce that the thing IS false. Your logic breaks down when you try to logically go from LIKELY to IS.
Also consider that our LIKELIES are framed by the tools and data we include in its determination.
Enough for now….