It's obvious? How so? I'm not sure I understand why you'd think that.
We are discussing why in this thread. So if you keep up, it will be obvious why I'm asserting this.
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It's obvious? How so? I'm not sure I understand why you'd think that.
Of course not. But there is no special pleading there. It's a logical argument.
God doesn't have cause and effect applied to him after causing the universe nor does he come something limited, but is eternal and remains what he is.
Interesting, do you have a source for this because I'm not able to find it?The heat capacity of melting ice is infinite while it is melting.
Video @2:40 concludes previously said and proves a contradiction.Which particular problem? There are *paradoxes*, but no contradictions.
No but, I found whole video very informative and though you might want to watch some time.Any particular part you want to discuss? It was cool to see Woodin in the video.
Links statement appears otherwise to me.
Salam
We have three hypothetical scenarios of the universe:
(1) It began to exist (limited time)
(2) It always existed.
2 can be split two further ones:
2a Infinite state of cause and effects, one state to another.
2b Eternal existing "before time, motion, cause and effect" then having "motion, cause and effect time" applied to it with no cause.
This is the two scenarios we are talking about universe if existed forever.
Why I don't believe in 2a is possible, has to do with it being a paradox, it would require a cause since it's still an effect and at the same time would not require one, since it's infinite in span.
As for 2b, this would eternal universe spanning no beginning no end, then shrinking to plank time moment and being in motion by cause and effect after having none of that.
I'm saying God is more plausible, because (1) is more plausible, and God does not shrink from infinite time to plank time nor is an effect that needs a cause so why we don't need to apply this to God is obvious.
So it's more rational to conclude. It's obvious why if you read the thread.
Interesting, do you have a source for this because I'm not able to find it?
btw. do you know that there are 2 kinds of infinities?
1.) infinitely close to a point
2.) infinitely small or big magnitude
If your example is about 1 then you might have a point, but not otherwise.
Video @2:40 concludes previously said and proves a contradiction.
No but, I found whole video very informative and though you might want to watch some time.
The simplest argument I can state for myself is...
I know I exist.
I know I am created and did not cause myself.
So I have a cause and thus The Creator.
I didn't say you did, I said atheistic and quoted where you said it.
It's not rational to me because it requires special powers for which there is no evidence.
Links statement appears otherwise to me.
I see you're ahead of time compared to me when it comes to infinities.Well, the point is that the heat capacity is defined as the ratio between the energy put into a system and the temperature change induced by doing so.
But, in melting ice, a finite amount of energy produces NO temperature change. So the heat capacity is infinite.
By the way, this is typical of many phase transitions.
1. Infinitesimals are no longer used in most mathematics. No two points are infinitely close together. Instead, the notion of a limit is used (as in calculus), but that only involves finitely large quantities.
2. A lot of care is required here. There are several different notions of size or magnitude and the different notions can give very different results.
So, for example, we can talk about cardinality (Cantor's insight), leading to Hilbert's hotel, etc.
OR, we can talk about infinite *limits* (which are again defined only using finite quantities).
But there are also other concept of infinity, including ordinals (related to first, second, third, etc as opposed to one, two, three, etc). Ordinals are very different than cardinals.
My example was a ratio between measured quantities that comes out to be infinite. it is, however, an important quantity in physical chemistry.
I saw no contradiction there. Even when there is a discussion of Hilbert's hotel, there is no contradiction, merely a paradox. The resolution is to realize that finite and infinite quantities have different properties. one of the places where they differ is precisely in the stuff discussed about the hotel.
I watched it (at 1.5 rate). It was interesting, but I have been working with the ideas expressed most of my life, so there was little new there. It was interesting to see Woodin talk about his stuff.
I see you're ahead of time compared to me when it comes to infinities.
What you said is worthy to be studied upon.
Yet the other two options being scratched out, we are only left with that to conclude.
That's an interesting article and all, but it does not help your case. Should it turn out that there are no actual singularities, then that would hold for both black holes and the initial state of the universe. If anything, that article, should it turn out to be on the right path, would damage your case even more.Nice example, but we know too little about black holes to take this for granted.
Black Hole Cores May Not Be Infinitely Dense | Inside Science
Creation is 'physical energy'. By its own property, it appears and disappears (We do not know the process). To will is 'anthropomorphic', and imagined by humans.A timeless eternal creator willing it to existence is logical and more rational to conclude.
I agree with that, but we do not know causes for all things. It is a matter of research. Search goes on.The Cosmological Argument is based on a very simple notion -- that anything that "exists" must have a cause for its existence.
What makes you feel the atheistic point of view is that at some point there was no thing?
Kalam:
1. Everything that begins to exist has a cause.
2. The universe began to exist.
Conclude that the universe had a cause.
The problem is that 1 is NOT what is in evidence. Instead, the best evidence is
1'. Everything in the universe that has a cause has a cause within the universe.
From this, it follows that the universe does not have a cause.
I would also dispute 2: the phrase 'begins to exist' implies a process over time and that it NOT what happened with the existence of the universe. That is because time itself is part of the universe. Also, causality happens within time, so it makes no sense to talk about a cause outside of the universe.
I didnt say that it was the atheistic point of view. I said "from an atheistic point of view".
This position, from an atheistic point of view, does not mean "its THE atheistic point of view".
Kalam:
1. Everything that begins to exist has a cause.
2. The universe began to exist.
Conclude that the universe had a cause.
The problem is that 1 is NOT what is in evidence. Instead, the best evidence is
1'. Everything in the universe that has a cause has a cause within the universe.
From this, it follows that the universe does not have a cause.
I would also dispute 2: the phrase 'begins to exist' implies a process over time and that it NOT what happened with the existence of the universe. That is because time itself is part of the universe. Also, causality happens within time, so it makes no sense to talk about a cause outside of the universe.