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A Response to If_U_Knew: Jesus, the Law, and 1st century Judaism

Oberon

Well-Known Member
Nor is there evidence he was not. I'm not arguing that he was definitely married, I'm just arguing that your premise seems based on some tunnel vision.

Yes there is evidence. There is the matthean logion, Jesus' views on family, the lack of any record of marriage, Paul's use of other disciples to defend the right to marriage rather than use Jesus, and the presence of other unmarried Jews, particularly John the Baptist, likely Jesus' former "master/teacher."



I see you making the argument that Jesus most definitely was not married, not just that not all Jews were married.

That's because you are walking into a debate that has been going on over three threads. This one was not about addressing Jesus' marriage at all, but the reason that Ben Masada was using to assume that Jesus had to have been married by virtue of being Jewish.





Quite some time. I minored in Greek for my undergrad and have worked with the Jewish/Christian relationship for a few years now. Two years ago I wrote a seminar paper on the possible relationship of Qumran to Christianity. Second Temple Judaism and early Israelite theology are my main foci, and I have read Josephus extensively. I will be working with Martin Goodman at Oxford for the next year using Josephus as our primary source for Jewish history in the Graeco-Roman period.

In other words, Jesus is peripheral to your area of expertise? I ask because it will help in debates down the road. You mentioned in another thread that "Q" was being abandoned, and this was totally incorrect, and displays a certain disconnect from current historical Jesus research.
 

IF_u_knew

Curious
THERE IS NO REFERENCE! You are making a reference out of nothing. I am not talking about Isaiah, and neither was Jesus. The two just happen to have the same word. You can't claim Jesus was making a scriptural reference just because two passages have one word in common.

Oberon, this really is not as difficult as you are making it out to be. I am speaking of the reference to the Eunuchs in Isaiah.

Look: 4For thus saith the LORD unto the eunuchs that keep my sabbaths, and choose the things that please me, and take hold of my covenant;
5Even unto them will I give in mine house and within my walls a place and a name better than of sons and of daughters: I will give them an everlasting name, that shall not be cut off.

Now... you admit below (highlighted in RED) that this IS a conceptual metaphor and you admit that it is different than YOUR view of Eunuch (thus I am assuming you at least agree with my view here in Isaiah.. that it is regarding those **cut off** from their people, right?)

Follow me here on this line of rational thinking, okay.

It is apparent that Jesus not only KNEW the book of Isaiah (given that he quoted it more than a few times), but it is also apparent (for the same reason.. his usage of Isaiah throughout his ministry) that he felt particularly drawn to this prophet's testimony.

Thus, we can conclude that Jesus not only knew of the prophets allegorical use of the term Eunuch, but was IN FACT, using it in the same way.

Josephus had not written yet his view of the Essenes... let -it- go.

All in all.. there is more evidence that when Jesus spoke of the Eunuchs he was indeed referring to it in the way that Isaiah used it. Isaiah is 100% the tie that binds our ability to understand what this man was thinking at that time in regards to his teachings despite it now being 2,000 years later.






Let's make this clear: Isaiah 56 uses a metaphorical usage of eunuch. Jesus also uses a metaphorical usage of eunuch, in a totally different way, and a totally different context.

Jesus talks about eunuchs who were born as eunuchs (i.e. without the ability to have sex) those who are made that way (which are real eunuchs who have actually chopped it off) and those who choose to be eunuchs metaphorically for the sake of the kingdom. In other words, they choose to be celibate because it is the best path.

If Jesus were making a reference to Isaiah, why would he go on to say that some are eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom? In Isaiah, the metaphorical eunuchs are cut-off from god, but not by choice. By keeping his commandments, they can be near him, and not cut-off. Being cut-off, in Isaiah, is a BAD thing.

In the logion in Matt., it is a GOOD thing. Hence, no reference to Isaiah.

JESUS was a teacher that spoke to LIFE. He could see politically what was going on and where it was leading and so he was speaking to the Life that Jeremiah spoke to as well. GO... LIVE.... DO NOT die for pride's sake. Live for the sake of the kingdom. He knew quite well that the Land would still be there, but the Land is lifeless without its People, ya know. Isaiah speaks about this. Read Lamentations and understand, the Land is (as a traveller in the 1800's noticed) a barren, lifeless wasteland that can't grow anything that would deem it worth all the efforts of the two religions, Islam and Christianity, to maintain roots there. But, when the People (that'd be ISRAEL :) ) come BACK.. well, Life is abundant in the Land as we can see today. It, the Land comes BACK to Life.. gorgeous really. Without the People though, the Land is not any good...

Again, are you SURE you have read the Tanakh thoroughly?

And as is stated in Isaiah 50.. when they came back to the covenant, God would not find the bill of Divorce. ;) Brilliant in its True Light. Lifeless under the shadow you are trying to cast over his teachings.







It isn't. There is nothing similar between the two, except that they both have the same word (more or less).

Again, I do not believe that you have read Isaiah *at all* if your above statement is true. It is not *me* who can not get past thinking in terms of now. If you could get past the opinions of everyone else, surely you would get that what I am saying is we have a solid unbreakable cord (thanks to the Jewish) that connects our mind of *now* to the mind of this man who lived over 2,000 years ago.. it is the Tanakh (and NOT the opinions of others ON the Tanakh.. but the Tanakh itself). It is like the key to decipher the code in the teachings of Jesus. It is amazing really.
 
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Oberon

Well-Known Member
Ok, apparently this thread has taken a turn (as threads often do) and in addition to addressing the views of other Jews of jesus' day I am going to have to discuss Jesus' views to. I ask that maklelan be patient, as my arguments on various points will be lengthy and occasionally technical, and therefore require time, which I have little of during the week, so this my take a few days (and then I have to finish going into 2nd temple judaism).

It seems appropriate to begin the logion in Matt. 19:12. First, there are no major textual variations to deal with. All of our best texts have the same reading. Now to the text itself:

εισιv γαρ ευνουχοι οἵτινες εκ κοιλίας μητρος εγεννήθησαν οὕτω. και εισιν ευνουχοι οἵτινες ευνουχίσθησαν υπο των ανθρώπων, και εισιν ευνουχοι οἵτινες ευνούχισαν εαυτους δια την βασιλείαν των ουρανων. ο δυνάμενος χωρειν χωρείτω/ eisin gar eunouchoi hoitines ek koilias metros egennethesan houtos, kai eisin eunouchoi hoitines eunouchisthesan hypo ton anthropon, kai eisin eunouchoi hoitines eunouchisan heatous dia ten basileian ton ouranon ho dynamenos chorein choreito.

Matthew most likely attached this logion onto Jesus' teachings concerning divorce. It only occurs in Matthew, and no other gospel author connects any such teaching with Jesus' teachings on divorce (attested to even by Paul). Furthermore, the saying itself doesn't seem at all related to divorce. It is quite clearly concerned with voluntary celibacy. It would be very easy to write off as Matthean redaction, but for a few points:


First, the vocabulary. The noun "eunuch" and its verbal equivalent are found nowhere else in matthew, or anywhere else in the NT (excepting the sole account in Acts 8:27-39). Second, neither the vocabulary nor style are typically Matthean (for example, Matthew does not use dia ten basiliean anywhere else despite his numerous kingdom sayings), nor does the saying fit well into his narrative where it is inserted, indicating it is likely NOT simply his addition to Jesus' teaching on divorce. It doesn't look Matthean, doesn't sound Matthean, and doesn't fit very well in the Matthean context. It probably isn't Matthean, but an earlier tradition which Matthew had access to.
This hardly means it dates back to Jesus, however. The kingdom saying, which is a typical Jesus formula, formulated here in an untypical Matthean fashion makes this more likely. Additionally, I believe it coheres well with Jesus' views on family, which will be the subject of my next post.
 

maklelan

Member
Ok, apparently this thread has taken a turn (as threads often do) and in addition to addressing the views of other Jews of jesus' day I am going to have to discuss Jesus' views to.

If you just want to discuss the views of other Jews I'm more than happy to do that. It seems to me you're going to be more comfortable dealing primarily with the NT, though.

I ask that maklelan be patient, as my arguments on various points will be lengthy and occasionally technical, and therefore require time, which I have little of during the week, so this my take a few days (and then I have to finish going into 2nd temple judaism).

It seems appropriate to begin the logion in Matt. 19:12. First, there are no major textual variations to deal with. All of our best texts have the same reading. Now to the text itself:

εισιv γαρ ευνουχοι οἵτινες εκ κοιλίας μητρος εγεννήθησαν οὕτω. και εισιν ευνουχοι οἵτινες ευνουχίσθησαν υπο των ανθρώπων, και εισιν ευνουχοι οἵτινες ευνούχισαν εαυτους δια την βασιλείαν των ουρανων. ο δυνάμενος χωρειν χωρείτω/ eisin gar eunouchoi hoitines ek koilias metros egennethesan houtos, kai eisin eunouchoi hoitines eunouchisthesan hypo ton anthropon, kai eisin eunouchoi hoitines eunouchisan heatous dia ten basileian ton ouranon ho dynamenos chorein choreito.

Matthew most likely attached this logion onto Jesus' teachings concerning divorce. It only occurs in Matthew, and no other gospel author connects any such teaching with Jesus' teachings on divorce (attested to even by Paul). Furthermore, the saying itself doesn't seem at all related to divorce. It is quite clearly concerned with voluntary celibacy.


If it's metaphor, of course. It may refer to castration. This is how someone can be born a eunuch (no one voluntarily abstains of sex from birth), or be made a eunuch by someone else. See Origen for those who make themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom (and before our earliest witness to this verse!).

It would be very easy to write off as Matthean redaction, but for a few points:

First, the vocabulary. The noun "eunuch" and its verbal equivalent are found nowhere else in matthew, or anywhere else in the NT (excepting the sole account in Acts 8:27-39). Second, neither the vocabulary nor style are typically Matthean (for example, Matthew does not use dia ten basiliean anywhere else despite his numerous kingdom sayings), nor does the saying fit well into his narrative where it is inserted, indicating it is likely NOT simply his addition to Jesus' teaching on divorce. It doesn't look Matthean, doesn't sound Matthean, and doesn't fit very well in the Matthean context. It probably isn't Matthean, but an earlier tradition which Matthew had access to.


Or a later interpolation. That is much more parsimonious than positing an earlier source omitted from the other gospels. Keep in mind our earliest witnesses to this verse are 4th century and later, and celibacy was a hot topic in the second and third centuries as Christianity began appropriating more and more extremist ideologies.

This hardly means it dates back to Jesus, however. The kingdom saying, which is a typical Jesus formula, formulated here in an untypical Matthean fashion makes this more likely. Additionally, I believe it coheres well with Jesus' views on family, which will be the subject of my next post.

But you seem to derive much of your position on Jesus' views from this verse.
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
If you just want to discuss the views of other Jews I'm more than happy to do that. It seems to me you're going to be more comfortable dealing primarily with the NT, though.

The purpose of this thread was to go into 2nd temple judiasm. But, as Jesus was a Jew, going into his view of the law isn't actually a deviation.



If it's metaphor, of course. It may refer to castration. This is how someone can be born a eunuch (no one voluntarily abstains of sex from birth), or be made a eunuch by someone else. See Origen for those who make themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom (and before our earliest witness to this verse!).

It is in all our major texts, and which text of Origen are you referring to which predates our earliest textual witness to Matthew? Or are you saying that Origen's writings are earlier than our earliest textual witnesses to this saying, which isn't saying much if our earlist textual witness to origen postdates our earliest textual witness to Matthew.


Or a later interpolation. That is much more parsimonious than positing an earlier source omitted from the other gospels.

Hardly, nor is this the opinion of many scholars (see Allison and Davies' commentary on Matthew, as well as Allision's Jesus of Nazareth, Gnilka's Jesus of Nazareth, Schrage's Ethics of the New Testament, Brooks' Matthew's Community, and so on).


Keep in mind our earliest witnesses to this verse are 4th century and later, and celibacy was a hot topic in the second and third centuries as Christianity began appropriating more and more extremist ideologies.

There are no textual reasons to posit interpolation. It is in all the textual traditions, it sounds like Jesus, it's awkward placement in Matthew is still connected to Matthew's narrative (as if he had taken a seperate saying and awkwardly placed it in the narrative, not as if it was an interpolation), and it is hardly the sweeping cry for celibacy one would expect if an interpolater wanted to place a command for celibacy on Jesus' lips.


But you seem to derive much of your position on Jesus' views from this verse
Far more convincing to me is Jesus' view of family life (which I will get into in detail) and his probable mentor and certainly one he held in high regard (John the Baptist). Additionally, his life as a travelling prophet fits well as one unmarried.
 
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Oberon

Well-Known Member
Jesus and Family – an intro

It is interesting that when it comes to Jesus’ opposition to traditional family structure and values, even scholars on opposite poles like Crossan and Wright can agree. The reason for this is clear: throughout our sources, there are numerous depictions of Jesus not only reacting negatively to traditional families in general but his own family in particular. Of course, each commentator has their own way of viewing the reason behind this (e.g. Crossan, who uses it to further his idea of Jesus as a 60s radical objecting to the patriarchal family structure). What it is clear enough is that for whatever reason, when it came to family Jesus definitely had issues with the status quo. This is attested to not only in numerous sayings against the family (recorded in Mark, Q, John, and Thomas) but also actions in which Jesus shows contempt for traditional family ties (e.g. “let the dead bury the dead," and the numerous calls for followers to leave the family). Additionally, we have multiple attestation of a “mutual” rejection of Jesus and his own family, from his family members thinking that he was out of his mind, to his family and hometown’s disbelief, to Jesus' rejection of his family when they came with his "mother and brothers" attested to not only in the canonical gospels but also in Thomas. As I will go into in detail in subsequent posts (when I have some more time) our sources are quite clear in depicting a rift between Jesus and the traditional family, which was perhaps the most important cross-cultural symbol in the ancient Mediterranean, and was certainly a vital symbol for Jesus’ contemporaries.
 

maklelan

Member
The purpose of this thread was to go into 2nd temple judiasm. But, as Jesus was a Jew, going into his view of the law isn't actually a deviation.

Fair enough.

It is in all our major texts, and which text of Origen are you referring to which predates our earliest textual witness to Matthew? Or are you saying that Origen's writings are earlier than our earliest textual witnesses to this saying, which isn't saying much if our earlist textual witness to origen postdates our earliest textual witness to Matthew.

There is little support for asserting that a later textual witness to Origen has an equal proclivity for corruption as the texts of the New Testament. Eusebius preserves much of his writing, and that's where the reference to his castration comes from.

Hardly, nor is this the opinion of many scholars (see Allison and Davies' commentary on Matthew, as well as Allision's Jesus of Nazareth, Gnilka's Jesus of Nazareth, Schrage's Ethics of the New Testament, Brooks' Matthew's Community, and so on).

I don't really give much weight to appeals to popularity or authority.

There are no textual reasons to posit interpolation. It is in all the textual traditions,

That date to the fourth century and after.

it sounds like Jesus,

You mean it sound the things the authors and redactors attributed to Jesus.

it's awkward placement in Matthew is still connected to Matthew's narrative (as if he had taken a seperate saying and awkwardly placed it in the narrative, not as if it was an interpolation), and it is hardly the sweeping cry for celibacy one would expect if an interpolater wanted to place a command for celibacy on Jesus' lips.

Glosses and interpolations rarely fit seemlessly into texts, but when working from an older source authors almost always do fit them in seemlessly. I don't know your text-critical background, but you're arguing exactly the opposite of the accepted standards of textual criticism.

Far more convincing to me is Jesus' view of family life (which I will get into in detail) and his probable mentor and certainly one he held in high regard (John the Baptist). Additionally, his life as a travelling prophet fits well as one unmarried.

Itinerant preachers were often married, but I will be happy to give you time to organize your evidence.
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
There is little support for asserting that a later textual witness to Origen has an equal proclivity for corruption as the texts of the New Testament.
Why not? Josephus was "edited."




I don't really give much weight to appeals to popularity or authority

You mean you dismiss scholarship you haven't read because you aren't familiar with the arguments involved?



That date to the fourth century and after.

And that vary in multiple areas.

There is no textual reason to assert interpolation, nor does it make sense. If someone wanted Jesus to promote celibacy, his statement is hardly unequivical. If not, why put it in? Your argument for interpolation has no basis.



You mean it sound the things the authors and redactors attributed to Jesus.

Having studied the oral tradition behind quite extensively, no I am saying it sounds like Jesus.
 
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Oberon

Well-Known Member
Oberon, this really is not as difficult as you are making it out to be. I am speaking of the reference to the Eunuchs in Isaiah.


I know what you are talking about. There is no reason to read Isaiah into what Jesus says, simply because both texts reference eunuchs. They both talk about them in very different ways. In Isaiah, the reference to eunuchs is negative. For Jesus, it is positive. To read Isaiah into Jesus is to run against everything in both texts.


Now... you admit below (highlighted in RED) that this IS a conceptual metaphor and you admit that it is different than YOUR view of Eunuch (thus I am assuming you at least agree with my view here in Isaiah.. that it is regarding those **cut off** from their people, right?)

In Isaiah it is cut off from the people, but not in Jesus.
Follow me here on this line of rational thinking, okay.

It isn't rational. You see to words that are the same in english, and assume a relationship although the views in the two passages are completely different.



Thus, we can conclude that Jesus not only knew of the prophets allegorical use of the term Eunuch, but was IN FACT, using it in the same way.

That is not a logical deduction. In fact, given the passages, it is ILLOGICAL! In Isaiah, we have a metaphorical eunuch in a negative light. The "cut off" people are FORCED to be so.In Matthew, being a eunuch is a GOOD thing which should be sought by all who can.

Josephus had not written yet his view of the Essenes... let -it- go.

So what? The point is that we have unmarried Jews in Jesus' day.


All in all.. there is more evidence that when Jesus spoke of the Eunuchs he was indeed referring to it in the way that Isaiah used it.

There is no evidence, and the passages treat eunuchs in an entirely different light. You make the comparison based on a single word.




 

maklelan

Member
Why not? Josephus was "edited."

And we have a clear picture of the original texts because of Origen. You are assuming that all the texts are equally prone to corruption, which is not necessarily incorrect, but the integrity of Origen's witnesses is quite established.

You mean you dismiss scholarship you haven't read because you aren't familiar with the arguments involved?

I don't recall saying that, but I also don't recall you asking me to review their arguments. You simply argued that they agreed with you, and so I should too.

And that vary in multiple areas.

Variation in one area and not in another in no way supports the assertion that the other area is original. Again, this is in direct opposition to the standards of textual criticism.

There is no textual reason to assert interpolation,

You already said this, but this is irrelevant. Interpolation is accepted in many areas where no textual variants are extant. You're betraying a rather naive perspective on text-critical methodologies.

nor does it make sense. If someone wanted Jesus to promote celibacy, his statement is hardly unequivical.

And interpolations are rarely unequivocal.

If not, why put it in? Your argument for interpolation has no basis.

It certainly has basis. In fact, your argument for its antiquity established that basis. As you said, it doesn't fit Matthew. That means he inserted it directly from an older source or it's an interpolation. The fact that the most logical socio-religious backdrop for such an ideology comes a century or two after Matthews composition makes it more likely that it's an interpolation rather than original to Matthews Vorlage.

Having studied the oral tradition behind the gospels far more than you, no I am saying it sounds like Jesus.

Now that's an atrocious appeal to authority. That it "sounds like Jesus" has absolutely no weight in this discussion. You're really reaching, and your arguments are sounding less and less professional with every post.
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
Variation in one area and not in another in no way supports the assertion that the other area is original. Again, this is in direct opposition to the standards of textual criticism.
No itsn't. The first thing in NT criticism is to examine variant readings, not postulate readings which might be.



You already said this, but this is irrelevant. Interpolation is accepted in many areas where no textual variants are extant. You're betraying a rather naive perspective on text-critical methodologies.

I said this as one, not the only argument for the logion as not being interpolation.


And interpolations are rarely unequivocal.

Please. Compared to your evidence of interpolation here they are. Look at Josephus.



It certainly has basis. In fact, your argument for its antiquity established that basis. As you said, it doesn't fit Matthew.
It isn't typically Matthean. However, oral traditions which are recorded often can contain atypical vocabulary. In fact, this is one method of determining which sayings/narratives predate the authors. You are betraying a complete lack of expertise in NT textual criticism of knowledge of criteria for historicity in the Jesus tradition.


The fact that the most logical socio-religious backdrop for such an ideology comes a century or two after Matthews composition makes it more likely that it's an interpolation rather than original to Matthews Vorlage.

Only that is completely false. I will outline the arguemnts below:

1. We have no textual variants
2. As an interpolation, it doesn't really support anything, other than a celibacy which John and the essenes (and Jesus) thought the best way for those who can obtain them.
3. Paul make far more explicit arguments for celibacy. There would have been no reason to insert the passage into Matthew.
4. The manner and stye is consistent with they type of aphorisms, sayings, and style of Jesus.
5. The form of the passage is typical of oral tradition, not scribal interpolation. It employs mnemonic devices and as well as a form far more related to an oral tradition, rather a scribal insertion.
6. If one wanted to add to the text to defend celibacy, not only is it couched in metaphor, it is follows right after Jesus' teachings on marriage. An odd place for an interpolation promoting celibacy. Furthermore, it only promotes it for a few.


Your argument amounts to "It isn't typically Matthean" therefore it is likely interpolation.


Thatit "sounds like Jesus" has absolutely no weight in this discussion. You're really reaching, and your arguments are sounding less and less professional with every post.

This from someone who said that the Q hypothesis was fading. :rolleyes:
 

maklelan

Member
No itsn't. The first thing in NT criticism is to examine variant readings, not postulate readings which might be.

I didn't say it was the "first thing," and I'm not postulating a reading that might be. What I'm doing is trying to account for the presence of an anomalous reading. You've based your identification of this bit of text on the impression that it is anomalous. You insist it must have existed prior to Matthew. I assert that it makes more sense as an interpolation. Given the later history of asceticism and celibacy in early Christianity and the lack of any reference to an earlier tradition in any other text (Paul's writings predate Matthew and he spoke of celibacy, but no mention of this tradition), that the text is an interpolation is much more likely. Your theory is text-critically weaker than mine. Don't presume to lecture me about textual criticism.

I said this as one, not the only argument for the logion as not being interpolation.

Then present a stronger argument.

Please. Compared to your evidence of interpolation here they are. Look at Josephus.

You earlier asserted that interpolations tend not to be "awkwardly place" in a narrative, and that they tend to be incorporated smoothly into a text. The interpolation in Josephus to which I assume you refer is quite an anomalous and awkward reading. A devout Jew calling Jesus the messiah? You're not being very consistent, and you continue to ignore the standards of textual criticism.

It isn't typically Matthean. However, oral traditions which are recorded often can contain atypical vocabulary. In fact, this is one method of determining which sayings/narratives predate the authors. You are betraying a complete lack of expertise in NT textual criticism of knowledge of criteria for historicity in the Jesus tradition.

No, you're just misapplying methodologies. Atypical vocabulary is primarily a sign of interpolation and only rarely a sign of priority. You need a reason to place the text chronologically earlier than the author to assert priority rather than interpolation (eg. archaic grammar/spelling, parallels in earlier literature, allusions to earlier traditions). Authors tend to harmonize their sources far more than interpolators the texts into which they interpolate. I've pointed out more than a few errors in your logic regarding textual criticism that you've ignored. Don't pretend to start lecturing me about textual criticism.

Only that is completely false. I will outline the arguemnts below:

1. We have no textual variants
2. As an interpolation, it doesn't really support anything, other than a celibacy which John and the essenes (and Jesus) thought the best way for those who can obtain them.

You're not considering the facts that I've already pointed out. The Dead Sea Scrolls provide no indication of an ideology of celibacy. Your only source for that is Josephus and Philo, which I have already explained tendentiously read Graeco-Roman ideologies into their subjects. As I pointed out, Josephus cites Greek teachings repeatedly in his explanation of Essene standards. You scoffed at the idea of Greek influence in the Essenes and now you take the obviously Greek eisegesis of Josephus and Philo and assert that it defines Essene practice! On top of that you refused to respond to my discussion of Josephus' biases. You're not paying attention to the argument at all, so you can drop this silly attempt to talk down at me as if I'm the amateur here.

3. Paul make far more explicit arguments for celibacy. There would have been no reason to insert the passage into Matthew.

And yet Paul makes no mention of this tradition. If it truly predated Matthew then it would have been contemporary with Paul, and since marriage is so frequently mentioned, why not this tradition? On top of that, there would have been every reason to insert it into Matthew. In the late first and early second centuries CE many Christian groups only used the gospels, and many of them also began to practice celibacy and other ascetic practices as a result of the influence of Greek ideologies. Inserting a reference to castration makes perfect sense against the backdrop of prominent Christian groups trying to justify their incorporation of castration into Christian practice. That a prominent early Christian is said to have castrated himself around this time period only further supports that reading. Nothing supports the priority of the tradition save your assertion that it "sounds like Jesus."

4. The manner and stye is consistent with they type of aphorisms, sayings, and style of Jesus.

I disagree, but I'll be happy to let you support this rather than repeatedly just assert it. Somehow, however, I don't think that support will be forthcoming.

5. The form of the passage is typical of oral tradition, not scribal interpolation. It employs mnemonic devices and as well as a form far more related to an oral tradition, rather a scribal insertion.

Please describe these mnemonic devices and the manner in which the form testifies to an oral transmission.

6. If one wanted to add to the text to defend celibacy, not only is it couched in metaphor, it is follows right after Jesus' teachings on marriage. An odd place for an interpolation promoting celibacy. Furthermore, it only promotes it for a few.

Please explain why it is an odd place for an interpolation, but not for the insertion of a prior oral tradition.

Your argument amounts to "It isn't typically Matthean" therefore it is likely interpolation.

Absolutely false. I've given numerous reasons why interpolation is more likely than its chronological prioritization. You haven't responded to any of them.

This from someone who said that the Q hypothesis was fading. :rolleyes:

Again, less and less professional with every post. If you refuse to respond to the evidence I've provided in this post then you're on ignore. You've just been ignoring the substance of my posts and cherry-picking what you feel most prepared to respond to. I'm not taking part in that anymore.
 

IF_u_knew

Curious
I didn't say it was the "first thing," and I'm not postulating a reading that might be. What I'm doing is trying to account for the presence of an anomalous reading. You've based your identification of this bit of text on the impression that it is anomalous. You insist it must have existed prior to Matthew. I assert that it makes more sense as an interpolation. Given the later history of asceticism and celibacy in early Christianity and the lack of any reference to an earlier tradition in any other text (Paul's writings predate Matthew and he spoke of celibacy, but no mention of this tradition), that the text is an interpolation is much more likely. Your theory is text-critically weaker than mine. Don't presume to lecture me about textual criticism.



Then present a stronger argument.



You earlier asserted that interpolations tend not to be "awkwardly place" in a narrative, and that they tend to be incorporated smoothly into a text. The interpolation in Josephus to which I assume you refer is quite an anomalous and awkward reading. A devout Jew calling Jesus the messiah? You're not being very consistent, and you continue to ignore the standards of textual criticism.



No, you're just misapplying methodologies. Atypical vocabulary is primarily a sign of interpolation and only rarely a sign of priority. You need a reason to place the text chronologically earlier than the author to assert priority rather than interpolation (eg. archaic grammar/spelling, parallels in earlier literature, allusions to earlier traditions). Authors tend to harmonize their sources far more than interpolators the texts into which they interpolate. I've pointed out more than a few errors in your logic regarding textual criticism that you've ignored. Don't pretend to start lecturing me about textual criticism.



You're not considering the facts that I've already pointed out. The Dead Sea Scrolls provide no indication of an ideology of celibacy. Your only source for that is Josephus and Philo, which I have already explained tendentiously read Graeco-Roman ideologies into their subjects. As I pointed out, Josephus cites Greek teachings repeatedly in his explanation of Essene standards. You scoffed at the idea of Greek influence in the Essenes and now you take the obviously Greek eisegesis of Josephus and Philo and assert that it defines Essene practice! On top of that you refused to respond to my discussion of Josephus' biases. You're not paying attention to the argument at all, so you can drop this silly attempt to talk down at me as if I'm the amateur here.



And yet Paul makes no mention of this tradition. If it truly predated Matthew then it would have been contemporary with Paul, and since marriage is so frequently mentioned, why not this tradition? On top of that, there would have been every reason to insert it into Matthew. In the late first and early second centuries CE many Christian groups only used the gospels, and many of them also began to practice celibacy and other ascetic practices as a result of the influence of Greek ideologies. Inserting a reference to castration makes perfect sense against the backdrop of prominent Christian groups trying to justify their incorporation of castration into Christian practice. That a prominent early Christian is said to have castrated himself around this time period only further supports that reading. Nothing supports the priority of the tradition save your assertion that it "sounds like Jesus."



I disagree, but I'll be happy to let you support this rather than repeatedly just assert it. Somehow, however, I don't think that support will be forthcoming.



Please describe these mnemonic devices and the manner in which the form testifies to an oral transmission.



Please explain why it is an odd place for an interpolation, but not for the insertion of a prior oral tradition.



Absolutely false. I've given numerous reasons why interpolation is more likely than its chronological prioritization. You haven't responded to any of them.



Again, less and less professional with every post. If you refuse to respond to the evidence I've provided in this post then you're on ignore. You've just been ignoring the substance of my posts and cherry-picking what you feel most prepared to respond to. I'm not taking part in that anymore.


Wow!! :bow: I might not agree with all of what you say, and even perhaps am a bit cautious of your motives here given the back and forth I see going on (only caught this last post and still have some reading up to do), I DO like the Truth that you state.. cherry picking is absolutely what it is Oberon is doing.. and cherry picking from writings that did not even exist at the time it is said Jesus lived.


Since Oberon decided to place me in the Title of this thread, I take full "authority rights" and have little problem to distract it for a moment to ask you about what you said some posts back.. that you tried to help out with the relations between Christians and Jews.. do you mind to elaborate a bit on this for me please? I find it far more worthy a topic of discussion than the OP's attempts to shut down rational thinking. Again, considering it is ME this topic is regarding.. don't hesitate to go off topic :) .. I never shy away from a chance to REALLY learn something.
 
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maklelan

Member
Wow!! :bow: I might not agree with all of what you say, and even perhaps am a bit cautious of your motives here given the back and forth I see going on (only caught this last post and still have some reading up to do), I DO like the Truth that you state.. cherry picking is absolutely what it is Oberon is doing.. and cherry picking from writings that did not even exist at the time it is said Jesus lived.


Since Oberon decided to place me in the Title of this thread, I take full "authority rights" and have little problem to distract it for a moment to ask you about what you said some posts back.. that you tried to help out with the relations between Christians and Jews.. do you mind to elaborate a bit on this for me please? I find it far more worthy a topic of discussion than the OP's attempts to shut down rational thinking. Again, considering it is ME this topic is regarding.. don't hesitate to go off topic :) .. I never shy away from a chance to REALLY learn something.

My statement was about my research foci. I do a lot of research on the relationship of formative Judaism and early Christianity. I do also spend a lot of time working with modern Judaism, although ancient Judaism is my specialization. I try to attend Seder services whenever I can (the local rabbi is a lesbian. Imagine that) and generally hold a Seder dinner with my family and friends. I also had the opportunity this last year to set up a tabernacle for Sukkot and have my meals in it. I had dinner with a Jewish professor from a New York university and a Muslim professor from California a few weeks ago as part of an interfaith conference on sacred space. There are always plenty of opportunities to reach across the isle and create dialogue in this field, despite the proclivity for so many to spend the majority of their time highlighting our differences.
 

maklelan

Member
And your view here? Do you find that early Christianity is at all compatible with Judaism (then or now)?

I believe that early Christianity was far more cohesive with formative Judaism than we are currently aware (but many scholars are coming around to the idea). Scholars like Daniel Boyarin and James McGrath have long espoused the idea that Christianity was not as radical a departure from the Judaisms of the day as the New Testament leads us to believe. Boyarin has even argued that these two ideologies were not entirely distinguishable until the end of the first century CE. McGrath has a new book out investigating Christian monotheism in its early Jewish context, and he shows the idea of a son of God was not considered heretical until later Rabbis normalized their ideals. This is a very important topic that I can promise will produce a lot of good scholarship in the years to come.
 

IF_u_knew

Curious
I believe that early Christianity was far more cohesive with formative Judaism than we are currently aware (but many scholars are coming around to the idea). Scholars like Daniel Boyarin and James McGrath have long espoused the idea that Christianity was not as radical a departure from the Judaisms of the day as the New Testament leads us to believe. Boyarin has even argued that these two ideologies were not entirely distinguishable until the end of the first century CE. McGrath has a new book out investigating Christian monotheism in its early Jewish context, and he shows the idea of a son of God was not considered heretical until later Rabbis normalized their ideals. This is a very important topic that I can promise will produce a lot of good scholarship in the years to come.


Strange.. you answered exactly as I expected you would. Thus, the statement in my previous post, "that I find myself cautious as to your motives." I do not doubt I was correct to be such.. cautious, that is.

Still.. I love that you have no problem to call Oberon out for what he is... a cherry picker and one who becomes less professional with each and EVERY post he writes out. :)
 

IF_u_knew

Curious
That is not a logical deduction. In fact, given the passages, it is ILLOGICAL! In Isaiah, we have a metaphorical eunuch in a negative light.

Isaiah 56:5 blows your assertion above completely out of the water, Oberon. :yes: Dare I say that you understand this as well? ;)
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
I didn't say it was the "first thing," and I'm not postulating a reading that might be. What I'm doing is trying to account for the presence of an anomalous reading. You've based your identification of this bit of text on the impression that it is anomalous.

No, there is a difference between "anomalous" and not matthean. This difference is obvious to anyone having studied the NT in any significant detail. Matthew inherited various traditions (at least Q and Mark, and probably more). To some of these traditions, he added what is clearly his own views. In other words, he redacted some of his materials. Other parts he did not. What I argued was that the material in Mattew "eunuch" logion was "un-matthean" not that it was anomalous.


You insist it must have existed prior to Matthew.

So does lots of matthew's material. Some of it looks redacted, other parts don't. To say that it doesn't look like Matthew added his own touches is hardly to say that it is likely an interpolation.


Given the later history of asceticism and celibacy in early Christianity
Which we have with Paul. The earliest "christian" author we have texts for (paul) was a celibate and he promoted celibacy.


and the lack of any reference to an earlier tradition in any other text (Paul's writings predate Matthew and he spoke of celibacy, but no mention of this tradition)

And Paul seldom references Jesus' tradition.

that the text is an interpolation is much more likely

And you are simply wrong. The basis for your argument is flawed, because you are not correct in saying that the logion is anomalous. The problem is how you are approaching gospel textual criticism (which I address below).


Your theory is text-critically weaker than mine. Don't presume to lecture me about textual criticism.

Why not? When it comes to textual criticism of a passage which is attested to in all manuscripts, what is important is to know the tradition the text is representing. I am clearly more familiar with the Jesus tradition and with Jesus scholarship than you are. If we were talking about other texts in your field, certainly I would defer to you. But this is not such a case. Gospel texts are treated differently because of the nature of the texts.



A devout Jew calling Jesus the messiah?

If we are talking about the shorter passage, he doesn't. He states specifically that Jesus was "the one called the messiah." No christian would have said this. About the longer passage, it is clearly altered because it would basically make Josephus a christian however, as many others have shown (see especially Vermes on this), much of the passage contains typical Josephan vocabulary.


Atypical vocabulary is primarily a sign of interpolation and only rarely a sign of priority. You need a reason to place the text chronologically earlier than the author to assert priority rather than interpolation (eg. archaic grammar/spelling, parallels in earlier literature, allusions to earlier traditions). Authors tend to harmonize their sources far more than interpolators the texts into which they interpolate. I've pointed out more than a few errors in your logic regarding textual criticism that you've ignored. Don't pretend to start lecturing me about textual criticism.

The errors you pointed out all show a mistaken conception ot NT textual criticism. Unlike with texts such as Josephus, which are clearly Josephan throughout (and therefore an aberrant passage would be reason to posit interpolation or alteration) THIS IS NOT THE CASE WITH THE GOSPELS! Mark, Matthew, and Luke at least all tried to incorporate oral traditions (mainly already probably recorded in written form) into an over all narrative. As such, your approach to textual criticism when it comes to the NT is almost EXACTLY the opposite of what it should be. The more "matthean" a particular passage sounds, the more likely it is that he has redacted or even created that tradition. The less "matthean" the less likely he has. These authors were working with an oral tradition of aphorisms, parables, short narratives, longer narratives, etc. Much of Mark is simply this material awkwardly juxtaposed. Luke and Matthew show more skill, but often enough there is still parts which show less redaction. By your (very bad) approach to textual criticism each passage which shows less redaction (which NT textual critics like) would be an argument for interpolation. This is a very bad approach to NT textual criticism.



You're not considering the facts that I've already pointed out. The Dead Sea Scrolls provide no indication of an ideology of celibacy. Your only source for that is Josephus and Philo, which I have already explained tendentiously read Graeco-Roman ideologies into their subjects. As I pointed out, Josephus cites Greek teachings repeatedly in his explanation of Essene standards. You scoffed at the idea of Greek influence in the Essenes and now you take the obviously Greek eisegesis of Josephus and Philo and assert that it defines Essene practice! On top of that you refused to respond to my discussion of Josephus' biases. You're not paying attention to the argument at all, so you can drop this silly attempt to talk down at me as if I'm the amateur here.

I believe you when you say you know more than enough about Qumran and Philo and Josephus, and we will get into that soon enough. However, your arguments on Textual Criticism, combined with other comments, clearly show you lack certain familiarity with NT scholarship.




And yet Paul makes no mention of this tradition. If it truly predated Matthew then it would have been contemporary with Paul, and since marriage is so frequently mentioned, why not this tradition?

Paul seldom mentions Jesus traditions. It is clear from his letters that he was acquainted to it, yet only in a few areas does he expressly cite it. Often, however, passages very similar to Jesus traditions are found within Paul yet are not said to come from Jesus (likely because the communities he was writing to already were familiar with the oral Jesus tradition). And Paul DOES allude to this teaching in 1 Cor. 7:8. Like most allusions to the Jesus tradition, he does not specifically mention Jesus as the source, but this is the norm for paul, and exceptions like that of 1 Cor 7:10 are unusual.

In the late first and early second centuries CE many Christian groups only used the gospels

Not true. For example, even a heretic like Marcion made up the majority of his "canon" with Paul's letters.

Inserting a reference to castration makes perfect sense against the backdrop of prominent Christian groups trying to justify their incorporation of castration into Christian practice.

Hardly. First, you are incorrect about the use of Paul in the second century. Second, the passage doesn't actually recommend literal castration, but metaphorical. The logion distinguishes between those who from birth have defects, those who actually castrate themselves, and the last group (the group Jesus approves of) are only metaphorically castrating themselves. So interpolation would do the reverse of justifying "their incorporation of castration into Christian practice." Finally, it isn't even a sweeping command for celibacy, but a sort of "do it if you can" recommendation for celibacy.

That a prominent early Christian is said to have castrated himself around this time period only further supports that reading. Nothing supports the priority of the tradition save your assertion that it "sounds like Jesus."

See above.



Please describe these mnemonic devices and the manner in which the form testifies to an oral transmission.

Repition, and ABC formula. In other words, some are X because of A, some are X because of B, and some are X because of C. Do C. Easy to remember, common in orality.

I disagree, but I'll be happy to let you support this rather than repeatedly just assert it. Somehow, however, I don't think that support will be forthcoming.





Please explain why it is an odd place for an interpolation, but not for the insertion of a prior oral tradition.

I will get to all this, at the latest by thurs. or friday, when I have a good deal of free time.
 
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maklelan

Member
Strange.. you answered exactly as I expected you would. Thus, the statement in my previous post, "that I find myself cautious as to your motives." I do not doubt I was correct to be such.. cautious, that is.

I don't understand. What do you imagine my motives to be?
 
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