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Against AK4: Rev. 14:11 and Eternity

Oberon

Well-Known Member
This post is designed to address the claim made by AK4 that Revelations 14:11 does not end by stating that the torment described will last forever.

More than once, AK4 has accused scholars of “interpreting” rather than “translation” (although it is impossible to translate any long text without interpretation), and this is one area where apparently scholars have misled people by translating the sentence in question by stating “forever and ever” or some variant.

I intend to show that the relevant clause IS properly translated as “forever and ever” and that it DOES refer to eternity. I will do this in two ways. First, I will address the semantic properties of the various syntactic constituents in the phrase. Second, I will address the semantic range and use of the relevant lexical item (aion) itself.

To start, let us look at the relevant passage itself:

Rev. 14:11- And the smoke of their torment ascendeth up for ever and ever: and they have no rest day nor night, who worship the beast and his image, and whosoever receiveth the mark of his name

Now, the part translated as “for ever and ever” (which AK4 objects to) is in Greek εἰς αἰῶνας αἰώνων/ eis aionas aionon or IN(To).prep AGE/EON.acc.pl AGE/EON.gen.pl. Literally rendered, the phrase reads “into the ages of the ages.”

But what does that phrase mean? As I said, I will approach this in two ways. The first is to deal with the semantic values of the syntactic constituents of the phrase.

First and foremost, we have aion in the accusative case. Now, anyone who has studied Greek or Latin (or even one of the Germanic languages, for that matter) will most likely immediately associate this case with the D(irect) O(bject), and only secondarily with other semantic roles. As such, the accusative for most classicists or students of biblical Greek is primarily a syntactic case, and only secondarily a semantic one.

However, this was likely not the original role of the accusative. For almost a century now, a number of Indo-European specialists have postulated that at some point the mother language of Greek (called Proto-Indo-European or PIE) possessed ergative syntax.

The “ergative” case is likely a foreign term even to professors of Classical Languages. Basically, an ergative language distinguishes between the subject of a transitive verb on the one hand (which is marked as ergative) and the subject of an intransitive verb and the object of the transitive verb on the other. In other words, in an ergative language, the word “you” in the sentence “I love you” and in the sentence “You awoke” would both be marked the same (as absolutive), while the “you” in “you hit him” would be marked as ergative. In a language like Latin, Greek, or English, this type of distinction is not made. All subjects are marked the same (nominative in Greek and Latin) and the Direct Object is marked differently.

Recently however, criticisms have been leveled against the theory that PIE was an ergative language. These criticisms most importantly involve aspects of PIE which do not cohere with any known ergative language. Instead, many experts in PIE are now proposing that PIE was an Active language.

An Active language does not possess transitive verbs at all. Rather, it distinguishes between active verbs (to stand up, to make, to move) and stative verbs (to be standing up, to be dry, to become old, etc). Also, nouns in active languages are distinguished as either animate or inanimate, and this aids in determining their roles in a sentence.

For my purposes, it doesn’t matter if PIE was ergative or active (although I believe it was an active language), because either type would have the same relevancy for my point: the initial role of the accusative.

As I said earlier, any student of Greek will most likely associate the accusative case first and foremost with the DO (direct object). However, if PIE was either ergative or active, a direct object as it existed in Greek was not present. Rather, it is likely that the accusative case came to be associated as DO through a semantic mapping of the feature of “goal” into the object of most verbs.

In other words, the accusative which evolved into the Greek accusative was at least as much a semantic as a syntactic case, and certain semantic roles (like that of Goal) were earlier than the syntactic role of DO.

Even in Homer, the accusative can function by itself in a purely semantic role. One of these roles is the goal accusative as one of motion, on a spatial plane:

Toi d’ ham heponto Argeion basilees hosoi kekleato boulen/ and the kings of the Argives were following, those who had been called to the council.

What is important to note here is that to the council is represented only by a single accusative. The “motion goal” is within the case itself. Unlike with later Greek (and even in Homer this is rare) no preposition is needed.

Furthermore, if localist grammar has taught us anything, the mapping of the spatial plane onto a temporal one is a cross-linguistic phenomenon. Certainly, it is present in Greek. The words or phrases which mean “across space” can also mean “across time.” The same is true with through space/time, into space/time, etc.

The point of all of this is that the accusative of time (which, in any large reference grammar, is found somewhere under the list of possible uses of the accusative) is actually simply an aspect of the general meaning of the accusative itself. To draw a simple diagram, the various uses of the accusative (direct object, motion towards, extent of time, etc) can all be represented as such:

X ----------------------------------------->

By the time of the Greek of the New Testament, the accusative had to be used with a preposition in order for it to have any of its former semantic values, as by this time it was the DO par excellence.

So, in Rev. 14:11, we have the preposition eis. This preposition is late in Greek, having developed from dialectical borrowing of a variant of a similar preposition en. This preposition is now needed to represent a semantic value which the accusative had on its own at one time. It is noteworthy that such semantic roles of Goal (whether spatial or temporal) are still limited to the accusative, even though prepositions are now required.

Eis with the accusative, when referring to time, is used to indicate the time until a certain state occurs (for example, until a certain year). Again, in a diagram, this can be visualized as X----------------------------------------------> where X is the starting point and the accusative takes you into its referent. For example, kai nu ken es dekaten geneen heteron g’ eti boskoi/ indeed into the tenth generation would it also feed someone else.” Od.19.294

The limit placed on the extent of the accusative of time is in the noun placed in the accusative itself. In the above example, the tenth generation is in the accusative case, and so the extent of time will last up until the tenth generation.
 
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Oberon

Well-Known Member
This leads us nicely into the second way of approaching the phrase in revelations: the semantics of aion. As we have seen, it is the noun itself which will, in an accusative expression of time, determine when the extent is ended. The accusative itself simply points to the length of time to the event-referent of the noun, it does not itself limit the length of time.

So, what does aion mean? In its most basic sense, in the singular, it refers to an age or a lifetime, a specific length of time. In a simple diagram, this can be sketched as follows: |<-----------------aion-------------------->| where the aion is limited at both ends by context. However, when used in the plural (as it is in Rev. 14:11), we get some very different meanings. The plural can be used to refer simply to more than one age, but often enough it refers to eternity. In other words, the eis with the accusative of extent of time has as a referent “ages” without limit. In a diagram, instead of the one of aion above we have
X-------------aionas---------> with no limit at the end.

A few examples will suffice. I will limit my examples to Koine Greek, although there are relevant examples from classical as well:


Rom. 1:25: Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever.

The phrase translated as “for ever” above is in Greek &#949;&#953;&#787;&#962; &#964;&#959;&#965;&#768;&#962; &#945;&#953;&#787;&#969;&#834;&#957;&#945;&#962;/eis tous aionas. It uses the same preposition and the same noun in the same case and number as in Rev. 14:11. Now, we can hardly imagine that Paul would talk about God as blessed only for a specific number of ages. Rather, by saying “into the ages” he clearly means eternity.

Tob. 13:4 …he is our Lord and God, he is our Father for ever and ever.

In the LXX, again we find “forever” translated from &#949;&#7984;&#962; &#960;&#8049;&#957;&#964;&#945;&#962; &#964;&#959;&#8058;&#962; &#945;&#7984;&#8182;&#957;&#945;&#962;/ into all the ages. Although the word “all” is added, it is imply for emphasis (and as we shall see later, such emphasis is provided in Rev. 14:11 by the gen. pl. of aion). What is important is the acc. pl. with eis is again used to clearly represent forever.

Ps. 132:14- This is my rest forever…

Here, forever is &#949;&#7984;&#962; &#945;&#7984;&#8182;&#957;&#945; &#945;&#7984;&#8182;&#957;&#959;&#962;/ eis aiona aionos. What is interesting is that even though the eternal sense is clear, only the SINGULAR is used. The sense of eternity is given by using the genitive of aion for emphasis (the age of age). By adding this emphasis, even the singular of aion with eis clearly refers to eternity.


My last example brings together both of these points, the plural with eis meaning eternity and the genitive for emphasis.

4. Macc. 18:24 – The glory to him [God] forever. Amen.

Forever here is strikingly similar to Rev. 14:11, and again it can hardly refer to a specific length of time (after which the glory of god would cease). Forever is rendered in the Greek by &#949;&#7984;&#962; &#964;&#959;&#8058;&#962; &#945;&#7984;&#8182;&#957;&#945;&#962; &#964;&#8182;&#957; &#945;&#7984;&#8061;&#957;&#969;&#957;/ eis tous aionas ton aionon. The only difference between this line and the line in Rev. 14:11 is the articles. However, the articles here do not change the temporal aspect. We have again eis with the accusative plural of aion, and a genitive which adds emphasis. The line, as with revelations, could be literally translated as “into the ages of the ages.” However, it is clear from this and from my other examples, as well as from the semantics the syntactical combination of the preposition eis with the accusative and the noun-referent in the phrase, that both this line and the line in revelations is better translated as forever.

In sum, although a “literal” rendering of the Greek in Rev. 14:11 would not state forever, the meaning of forever is quite clear by the Greek itself, and a good translator should simply say “forever and ever” as this gets across not only the sense of eis with aion in the accusative plural but also the emphasis added by the genitive.
 

AK4

Well-Known Member
I was away from my cpu all weekend and i am now looking at this thread. I will respond shortly.
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
I was away from my cpu all weekend and i am now looking at this thread. I will respond shortly.

I await with an anticipation it were weak to call rapture :D

And take your time. I'm not going anywhere, and I look forward to your arguments.
 

AK4

Well-Known Member
First we must realize that Christ does not reign for ever and ever

1Co 15:24 - Then cometh theend, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.

So anywhere you see written in translations that say He reigns for ever and ever or says something along those lines of for ever and ever is bad translation because it would contradict this verse. And there absolutely cannot be no contradictions of scripture.

So with that premise look at Rev 14:11 with 11:15 which I quote you

Forever is rendered in the Greek by &#949;&#7984;&#962; &#964;&#959;&#8058;&#962; &#945;&#7984;&#8182;&#957;&#945;&#962; &#964;&#8182;&#957; &#945;&#7984;&#8061;&#957;&#969;&#957;/ eis tous aionas ton aionon. . The only difference between this line and the line in Rev. 14:11 is the articles. However, the articles here do not change the temporal aspect. The line, as with revelations, could be literally translated as “into the ages of the ages.” However, it is clear from this and from my other examples, as well as from the semantics the syntactical combination of the preposition eis with the accusative and the noun-referent in the phrase, that both this line and the line in revelations is better translated as forever.


14:11


&#949;&#7984;&#962;
eis •
for
&#945;&#7984;&#8182;&#957;&#945;&#962;
ai&#333;nas •
ever
&#945;&#7984;&#974;&#957;&#969;&#957;
ai&#333;n&#333;n •
ever


Or unto the ages of ages

11:15
&#949;&#7984;&#962;
eis •
for
&#964;&#959;&#8058;&#962;
tous •
the
&#945;&#7984;&#8182;&#957;&#945;&#962;
ai&#333;nas •
ever
&#964;&#8182;&#957;
t&#333;n •
the
&#945;&#7984;&#974;&#957;&#969;&#957;.
ai&#333;n&#333;n •
ever


Or unto the ages of the ages

Now with basically the same phrase as you state and Christ doesn’t reign for ever and ever but for the ages of the ages your stand on having the torment and smoke of them rising for ever and ever does not stand.
Gal 1:5
&#949;&#7984;&#962;
eis •
for
&#964;&#959;&#8058;&#962;
tous •
the
&#945;&#7984;&#8182;&#957;&#945;&#962;
ai&#333;nas •
forevermore
&#964;&#8182;&#957;
t&#333;n •
the
&#945;&#7984;&#974;&#957;&#969;&#957;,
ai&#333;n&#333;n •
forevermore


Once again this is talking of “for the ages of the ages”

Oh I see where the problem is… Theology has taught that Christ and God the Father are the same. This is not true or scriptural. Christ has a God. Christ also didn’t eternally exist. The logic of the examples you give are based on the doctrines like the trinity. Christ says He came out from God therefore God the Father brought forth/begot/created/birth Christ and then through Christ they made everything else. Christ had a beginning and it didn’t start at Mary. Eternity has no beginning or ending. Check this out

There was a time before God made any eons (I Cor. 2:7). Then God made the eons (Heb. 1:2). There were eons in the past (Col 1:26). We are living in this present wicked eon (Gal. 1:4). Satan is the god of this eon (II Cor. 4:4). Christ, not Satan, will reign a thousand years in the next eon (Lk 1:33). The thousand years will come to an end (Rev. 20:3). Christ will reign in the eon that follows the thousand years (Rev. 22:5 and Lk. 1:33). Hence, He reigns for the "eons" (the next two) "of the eons" (all others).Then the last eon comes to an end (I Cor. 10:11). Christ ceases to reign after the eons come to an end (I Cor. 15:24:28) because He turns over the Kingdom to God His Father and God becomes "all in all." The eons end, but that which is of the Kingdom continues (Lk 1:33 & Isa. 9:7).


Also

There is not one word in either the Hebrew or Greek Scriptures that can be properly translated "forever" or "eternity," or any other word meaning "endless" time. Some might suggest that a verse such as Rom. 16:26-- " ... the everlasting [Greek: 'aionian'] God" proves that aionian is eternal. It does not. Paul isn't trying to tell us here that God lives "for ever." The Scriptures have long ago told us that God's life has no end (Psalm 102:27). Paul is telling us that God is not off in a corner somewhere unconcerned with mankind, but that He is " ... the eonian God." That is, He is God of the eons in which we live (Rev. 15:8). This does not say God ceases to exist at the end of the eons any more than Christ ceases to exist after He is no longer "King of the eons (Rev. 5:3)."
 

AK4

Well-Known Member
So back to the “eis”.

This word as a preposition has the meaning of according to Thayer:
that "eis" is a "preposition governing the accusative and denoting entrance into, or direction and limit; into, to towards, for among."

In Rev 14:11 it is:

Unto the ages of ages
Entrance into the ages of ages
Towards the ages of ages
Among the ages of ages

Now look at it with translating aionas into evers or eternities,

Unto the eternities of eternities
Entrance into the eternities of eternities
Towards the eternities of eternities
Among the eternities of eternities

How can you “unto”, “enter”, move “towards” or be “among” eternity, let alone the fact of having multiple eternities?

Also Notice the importance of the word “of” and how its not “and”. "Of" contrasts one thing with another. It does not "add" one thing to another. This is a big difference.

“Eternities” OF “eternities”
Ages OF ages

Have you notice throughout scripture, most if not all of these phrases emphasize this same pattern “glory for the ages of the ages”. The two ages before He hands over the kingdom to His God.

I will stop here for now, I keep getting interrupted so i know my points are everywhere. There are more proofs on why translating for ever and ever contradicts scripture.
 

maklelan

Member
First we must realize that Christ does not reign for ever and ever

1Co 15:24
- Then cometh theend, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.

So anywhere you see written in translations that say He reigns for ever and ever or says something along those lines of for ever and ever is bad translation because it would contradict this verse.


One could just as easily say that this verse must be translated incorrectly because it would contradict the other verses that say he will reign forever. That's called the hermeneutic circle, and you're deep in it. You can't prioritize one part of a text over another in the itnerpretation of that other part of the same text. That's fallacious and uninformed.

And there absolutely cannot be no contradictions of scripture.


Well there's your problem. The assumption that scripture cannot contradict is juvenile and has no place in biblical scholarship. The scriptures are absolutely not univocal and contradict all the time. Sometimes it is because of scribal error (cf. 1 Sam 13:1, where Saul is said to be one year old when he began to reign), it can be because of diachronic ideological disparation (cf. 2 Sam 24:1, where Yahweh compels David to number Israel, and 1 Chr 21:1, where Satan is the one who does that. One was written before the individualization of satan, when good and evil came only from Yahweh [cf. Isa 45:6-7], and one came after Satan's personification and the rejection of evil stemming from Yahweh), it can be because of propaganda (cf. Eshbaal, "Man of Baal" in 1 Chr 8:33 and Ishbosheth, "Man of Shame" in 2 Sam 2:8. One name was written when Baal worship wasn't considered inappropriate, and the other when it was, so the editor changed it), or it can be because of different sources (cf. Acts 9:7 and 22:9, where it claims Paul's companions heard the voice in one and did not hear it in another. The whole "they heard, but did not understand" is an absolutely ilegitimate explanation).

Oh I see where the problem is… Theology has taught that Christ and God the Father are the same. This is not true or scriptural. Christ has a God. Christ also didn’t eternally exist. The logic of the examples you give are based on the doctrines like the trinity. Christ says He came out from God therefore God the Father brought forth/begot/created/birth Christ and then through Christ they made everything else. Christ had a beginning and it didn’t start at Mary. Eternity has no beginning or ending. Check this out


Not necessarily. Modern conceptions of philosophical eternity are quite distinct from those of early Christianity, and the vernacular appealed to at that time period was more traditional than precise.

There was a time before God made any eons (I Cor. 2:7). Then God made the eons (Heb. 1:2). There were eons in the past (Col 1:26). We are living in this present wicked eon (Gal. 1:4). Satan is the god of this eon (II Cor. 4:4). Christ, not Satan, will reign a thousand years in the next eon (Lk 1:33). The thousand years will come to an end (Rev. 20:3). Christ will reign in the eon that follows the thousand years (Rev. 22:5 and Lk. 1:33). Hence, He reigns for the "eons" (the next two) "of the eons" (all others).Then the last eon comes to an end (I Cor. 10:11). Christ ceases to reign after the eons come to an end (I Cor. 15:24:28) because He turns over the Kingdom to God His Father and God becomes "all in all." The eons end, but that which is of the Kingdom continues (Lk 1:33 & Isa. 9:7).


Any attempt to univocalize the entire Bible vis-a-vis a specific ideology like this is entirely misguided. Each writer wrote what he wanted according to the ideologies he espoused, not because he was drawing verbatim fro ma single ideologicla backdrop that perdured through the entire history of Israel.

There is not one word in either the Hebrew or Greek Scriptures that can be properly translated "forever" or "eternity," or any other word meaning "endless" time.


That's because they had no such concept. The phrase under consideration, however, was as close as they came, and for all intents and purposes, it can accurately be translated that way.

 

maklelan

Member
So back to the “eis”.

This word as a preposition has the meaning of according to Thayer:
that "eis" is a "preposition governing the accusative and denoting entrance into, or direction and limit; into, to towards, for among."


Thayer is an outdated text for people who don't know Greek. Better leixcons and grammars made it obsolete even while Thayer was still alive. It's only used by people who don't want to pay for a decent grammar or don't know any better. Try Blass, Debrunner, and Funk, or even Daniel Wallace's Greek Grammar.

Koine Greek appropriated eis for a number of uses not intended in Classical Greek. Your definition doesn't seem aware of its several uses. It was appropriated for the dative, for instance, as a result of the translation from the Semitic preposition b-. It also absorbed the preposition en. It also is used in place of predicate nominatives and accusatives, and in place of epi and pros. Wallace lists its uses just with the accusative as: spatial, temporal, purpose, result, reference/respect, advantage, disadvantage, and in place of en. It has a much, much wider use than you seem aware. I'll skip over your little grammarical treatise.

How can you “unto”, “enter”, move “towards” or be “among” eternity, let alone the fact of having multiple eternities?

Also Notice the importance of the word “of” and how its not “and”. "Of" contrasts one thing with another. It does not "add" one thing to another. This is a big difference.


No, "of" does not necessarily contrast one thing with another. You're thinking only of the subjective genitive, which is a simple mistake for people not familiar with many foreign or ancient languages. "king of kings," for example, is an objective genitive. The nomen regens is king over the object, the plural kings. "Ages of ages" is an objective genitive. The nomen regens is the "ages" of the combined "ages" of the nomen rectum. Think of the ages, and then imagine their combined total multiplied for ages. It was the the largest amount of time of which they could conceive.

“Eternities” OF “eternities”
Ages OF ages

Have you notice throughout scripture, most if not all of these phrases emphasize this same pattern “glory for the ages of the ages”. The two ages before He hands over the kingdom to His God.

I will stop here for now, I keep getting interrupted so i know my points are everywhere. There are more proofs on why translating for ever and ever contradicts scripture.


No, that's not true at all. You're not treating the scripture fairly and you don't kow your Greek.
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
First we must realize that Christ does not reign for ever and ever

1Co 15:24 - Then cometh theend, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.

So anywhere you see written in translations that say He reigns for ever and ever or says something along those lines of for ever and ever is bad translation because it would contradict this verse. And there absolutely cannot be no contradictions of scripture.


Here we have a fundamental difference. I go with what the text says, and you want to fit it into what you think it ought to say, based on your beliefs. This might lead to problems in our approaches. However, the line in question says nothing about Jesus reigning forever.



Now with basically the same phrase as you state and Christ doesn’t reign for ever and ever but for the ages of the ages your stand on having the torment and smoke of them rising for ever and ever does not stand.
Gal 1:5
&#949;&#7984;&#962;
eis •
for
&#964;&#959;&#8058;&#962;
tous •
the
&#945;&#7984;&#8182;&#957;&#945;&#962;
ai&#333;nas •
forevermore
&#964;&#8182;&#957;
t&#333;n •
the
&#945;&#7984;&#974;&#957;&#969;&#957;,
ai&#333;n&#333;n •
forevermore


Once again this is talking of “for the ages of the ages”

Yes, both mean forever. Only again we have nothing about reigning. Gal. 1:5 says "to whom be glory" forever and ever. So I don't see the problem.



Oh I see where the problem is… Theology has taught that Christ and God the Father are the same.

Not a christian, so this has no relevancy for me. I simply explaining what the text says.


There is not one word in either the Hebrew or Greek Scriptures that can be properly translated "forever" or "eternity," or any other word meaning "endless" time.

This doesn't matter. It is clear from the usage of koine alone, let alone classical greek, what the phrase in question means.

Nothing you have stated has addressed anything I said. All you have stated is simply that what I argue doesn't fit your beliefs. But that is hardly an argument on what the greek text says.
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
So back to the “eis”.

This word as a preposition has the meaning of according to Thayer:
that "eis" is a "preposition governing the accusative and denoting entrance into, or direction and limit; into, to towards, for among."


Again, this doesn't address my argument (plus it is a bit ridiculous to use Thayer). Certain prepositions go with certain cases in greek BECAUSE of the semantics of that case. "eis" is really the preposition "en" which has undergone morphological/phonological changes due to dialectical differences in various forms of ancient.

Nonetheless, it goes with the accusative (and I wouldn't say "governs" although this is an area of linguistic debate) because of the semantic nature of the accusative case in greek. The accusative is a goal oriented case. As I said, in a diagram it can be represented by ------------------------->

This is true whether we are talking about spatial or temporal, or even more abstract (affectedness, for example) concepts. For example, most verbs take the accusative as a direct object because of this "goal oriented" nature of this case.

Now, when it comes to motion, as I said, all the eis + acc. case means is ----->

What exactly the goal is is determined by the noun in question. For example, if you what to say "I am going into the house/ eis domon erchomai" the eis + acc. only gives you a goal oriented direction of ------------------>

The only reason you know where the motion ends is because of the noun placed in the accusative. In other words, --------------x|house]x-->

The referent "house" indicates that the goal-motion of the eis + acc. stops at the house. The eis + acc. itself does not.

With the phrase in question, we have ---------------X|ages:---->
with no clear "goal." In other words, the referent in the accusative does not HAVE a stopping point the way "house" does in "into the house."

To make this even MORE clear, the author adds a genitive for emphasis. Its not just into the ages, but into the ages of ages. This emphasis makes SURE that the sense of forever is clear. I gave you several examples from koine greek which indicate this.





Now look at it with translating aionas into evers or eternities,

Unto the eternities of eternities
Entrance into the eternities of eternities
Towards the eternities of eternities
Among the eternities of eternities

How can you “unto”, “enter”, move “towards” or be “among” eternity, let alone the fact of having multiple eternities?

Have you studied any other languages? Constructions are language specific. In greek, I can't say "His name is John." It doesn't work, even though it works well in english. I have to say "name to him John." In German, I can't say "I helped him." I have to say "I helped to/for him." In French, I can't say "I'm taking a course" I have to say "I follow a course."

In other words, just because a particular construction doesn't work in english doesn't mean it won't work in another language. In Greek, you CAN say "into the eternities of the eternities" just like you can say "I am angry with him" in English but "I am angry against him" in French.



Also Notice the importance of the word “of” and how its not “and”. "Of" contrasts one thing with another. It does not "add" one thing to another. This is a big difference.

“Eternities” OF “eternities”
Ages OF ages

Only greek doesn't have "of."
We put it into the language in english, because we don't really have the genitive case. In this case, the genitive adds emphasis by making sure that the goal-oriented accusative never reaches its goal (i.e. goes on forever). So not only do we have ---------------------------> but all those infinite lines are captured in a endless line of infinite lines. The "forever" is made clear.
 

AK4

Well-Known Member
One could just as easily say that this verse must be translated incorrectly because it would contradict the other verses that say he will reign forever. That's called the hermeneutic circle, and you're deep in it. You can't prioritize one part of a text over another in the itnerpretation of that other part of the same text. That's fallacious and uninformed.
Is it? And am I doing that? No. The whole concept of eternity is no where in the scriptures. Olam back in the OT by itself never had a meaning of eternity. To make aionis, which is its equivalent such is fallacious and uninformed.

Well there's your problem. The assumption that scripture cannot contradict is juvenile and has no place in biblical scholarship. The scriptures are absolutely not univocal and contradict all the time.
No, theres a difference between bible verses and scriptures. And I agree to somewhat things like the numbering may be off or something. Yes on the surface and those who don’t have spiritual discernment will think something contradicts but spiritually they don’t. i.e. many think Paul and James contradict each other. Scripture cannot contradict and you have to match spiritual with spiritual. Many who don’t understand something will see contradictions

Not necessarily. Modern conceptions of philosophical eternity are quite distinct from those of early Christianity, and the vernacular appealed to at that time period was more traditional than precise.

Again, Professor Knappe of Halle wrote, "The Hebrew was destitute of any single word to express endless duration. The pure idea of eternity is NOT FOUND IN ANY OF THE ANCIENT LANGUAGES." (CAPS emphasis are mine).


Any attempt to univocalize the entire Bible vis-a-vis a specific ideology like this is entirely misguided. Each writer wrote what he wanted according to the ideologies he espoused, not because he was drawing verbatim fro ma single ideologicla backdrop that perdured through the entire history of Israel.
You guys kill me with that. Was the scriptures inspired by ONE SOURCE? Yes, you say? Good. Who is this source? God? Right again. Now if any CEO of a business has a plan/goal and has different people write out His plan/goal are they not to follow that CEOs’ vision? Now how is it different with God? Only in theology do people think so crazy.
2 Peter 1:19-21
19 We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts: 20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. 21 For the prophecy came not in old time F4 by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

How many times in scripture does it say God spoke to them through His prophets? Yet when God inspired them to even sit, pick up a pen and scroll and then write something yall want to believe these where the thoughts of individuals only. Yes yall want and it is nothing else. God has something to say about people like this.

That's because they had no such concept. The phrase under consideration, however, was as close as they came, and for all intents and purposes, it can accurately be translated that way.


Wow and yet in Septugiant to express no end or “eternity” per se they just put a flat out “NO END” and even in the very first verses of Luke they say “no end”

Lu 1:33 His father, and He shall reign over the house of Jacob for the eons. And of His kingdom there shall be no consummation." (CLV)

Notice it’s he shall reign…for the eons……no end. No redundancy here right?


1:33 and he will reign over the house of Jacob forever; his kingdom will never end." (KJV)

…forever……never end. Flat out redundancy so the second half would even needed to be stated at all if He reigned for ever because in order to reign forever He would have to a kingdom for ever…..

I will continue tomorrow
 

maklelan

Member

Is it? And am I doing that? No. The whole concept of eternity is no where in the scriptures. Olam back in the OT by itself never had a meaning of eternity. To make aionis, which is its equivalent such is fallacious and uninformed.


To begin with, I'm aware of what 'olam and aionon mean, and I agree that they do not mean philosophical eternity as we understand it, but that's not what I was addressing. You are very clearly stuck in the hermeneutic circle, and I promise you the very last thing I am when it comes to this is uninformed.

No, theres a difference between bible verses and scriptures. And I agree to somewhat things like the numbering may be off or something. Yes on the surface and those who don’t have spiritual discernment will think something contradicts but spiritually they don’t. i.e. many think Paul and James contradict each other. Scripture cannot contradict and you have to match spiritual with spiritual.


And since "spiritual" is a subjective interpretation, you're basing it all on your own hermeneutic, which, as we have already seen, is fallacious. It's incredibly easy to manipulate liberal interpretations to make it seem consistent.

Many who don’t understand something will see contradictions

And all who refuse to see contradictions don't understand the scriptures.

Again, Professor Knappe of Halle wrote, "The Hebrew was destitute of any single word to express endless duration. The pure idea of eternity is NOT FOUND IN ANY OF THE ANCIENT LANGUAGES." (CAPS emphasis are mine).


I have no problem with this.

You guys kill me with that. Was the scriptures inspired by ONE SOURCE? Yes, you say? Good.


No, the scriptures "was" not inspired by one source.

Who is this source? God? Right again. Now if any CEO of a business has a plan/goal and has different people write out His plan/goal are they not to follow that CEOs’ vision? Now how is it different with God? Only in theology do people think so crazy.
2 Peter 1:19-21
19 We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts: 20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. 21 For the prophecy came not in old time F4 by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

How many times in scripture does it say God spoke to them through His prophets? Yet when God inspired them to even sit, pick up a pen and scroll and then write something yall want to believe these where the thoughts of individuals only. Yes yall want and it is nothing else. God has something to say about people like this.

Whoopdie-doo. That doesn't change the absolutely irrefutable fact that the Bible is rife with error, inconsistency, and contradiction.

Wow and yet in Septugiant to express no end or “eternity” per se they just put a flat out “NO END” and even in the very first verses of Luke they say “no end”

Lu 1:33His father, and He shall reign over the house of Jacob for the eons. And of His kingdom there shall be no consummation." (CLV)

Notice it’s he shall reign…for the eons……no end. No redundancy here right?


1:33 and he will reign over the house of Jacob forever; his kingdom will never end." (KJV)

…forever……never end. Flat out redundancy so the second half would even needed to be stated at all if He reigned for ever because in order to reign forever He would have to a kingdom for ever…..

I will continue tomorrow

Utterly abominable misreadings. You're way off base.
 

AK4

Well-Known Member

Thayer is an outdated text for people who don't know Greek. Better leixcons and grammars made it obsolete even while Thayer was still alive. It's only used by people who don't want to pay for a decent grammar or don't know any better. Try Blass, Debrunner, and Funk, or even Daniel Wallace's Greek Grammar.


Okay I see where this is going. If I bring up scholars who have done work on this and see opposite your view, you will disregard them and their work. Not a problem.



Koine Greek appropriated eis for a number of uses not intended in Classical Greek. Your definition doesn't seem aware of its several uses. It was appropriated for the dative, for instance, as a result of the translation from the Semitic preposition b-. It also absorbed the preposition en. It also is used in place of predicate nominatives and accusatives, and in place of epi and pros. Wallace lists its uses just with the accusative as: spatial, temporal, purpose, result, reference/respect, advantage, disadvantage, and in place of en. It has a much, much wider use than you seem aware. I'll skip over your little grammarical treatise.

So place any of those words in the phrase &#8220;into the ages or ages&#8221; and see how it still cant meaning for ever and ever or eternity. Can you have something spatial, temporal, (a) result, (a) reference in something that has no beginning or ending (eternity)

No, "of" does not necessarily contrast one thing with another. You're thinking only of the subjective genitive, which is a simple mistake for people not familiar with many foreign or ancient languages. "king of kings," for example, is an objective genitive. The nomen regens is king over the object, the plural kings. "Ages of ages" is an objective genitive. The nomen regens is the "ages" of the combined "ages" of the nomen rectum. Think of the ages, and then imagine their combined total multiplied for ages. It was the the largest amount of time of which they could conceive.
See no matter how much you try to fight this with &#8220;how it should be read&#8221; or &#8220;it is a genitive or subjective or objective case&#8221; the fact remains that when you read further into even just the same book/scroll where you say that the phrase means for ever and ever or eternity it falls flat in light of other scripture. To even say eternity or for ever in any of the scriptures makes no sense with almost everything else scripture. Too many things that were &#8220;to be for ever or eternal or everlasting&#8221; have ended and the same is with &#8220;the smoke of their torment&#8221;. Besides the word torment which also means &#8220;a testing by the touchstone,&#8221; has a match on what that touchstone is and whats it purpose. Are these people to be tested for ever and ever over and over and over again throughout eternity? When will they ever pass? Never? If God knows this, why would He keep testing them? And you cant say He annihilates them because as you say their torment goes on for ever so somehow they still exists.
How about this example, think of 5 apples, and then imagine me pointing to 3 of them and saying these are &#8220;the apples of apples&#8221;. Are you saying to me that even if you put this phrase in the cases you stated above it could mean more than three apples.
How about a better example. Lets say there has been 6 hours already pasted and we are looking ahead and &#8220;the smoke of their torment rises for the hours of hours&#8221;, you still saying that that would indicate eternity?
So I should think of hours and then imagine the combined total multiplied for hours to get eternity or for ever and ever?
How about changing it to times. &#8220;the smoke of their torment rises for the times of times&#8221;. Does hours/times change into eternity?
Eternity:
1.
infinite time; duration without beginning or end.


3.
Theology. the timeless state into which the soul passes at a person's death.

4.
an endless or seemingly endless period of time: We had to wait an eternity for the check to arrive.



Can time be measured? Yes. It has at least a beginning. Can eternity measured? No it has no beginning (you cant enter something that has no beginning otherwise that would be a beginning) or ending.



No, that's not true at all. You're not treating the scripture fairly and you don't kow your Greek.


Really? He (Jesus) hands over the kingdom, yet He reigns for ever and ever. The queen of England hands over her kingdom, can you still say she reigns for ever? Do you have to know greek so fluently to see something so obvious?


 

maklelan

Member
Okay I see where this is going. If I bring up scholars who have done work on this and see opposite your view, you will disregard them and their work. Not a problem.

A more accurate assessment would be, if I see references to outdated, obsolete, and incorrect scholarship I point it out. I'm not an amateur, so don't make the mistake of treating my argument as if I were.

So place any of those words in the phrase “into the ages or ages” and see how it still cant meaning for ever and ever or eternity.

As I made quite clear, that's not what I'm arguing. I have explicitly stated that it cannot mean philosophical eternity, and I reminded you again of that fact in my previous post. I am correcting the mistakes in your statements, though, but it's clear you're incapable of dealing honestly or intelligently with this issue, so I'm finished with you. You're on ignore.
 

Carico

Active Member
This post is designed to address the claim made by AK4 that Revelations 14:11 does not end by stating that the torment described will last forever.

More than once, AK4 has accused scholars of “interpreting” rather than “translation” (although it is impossible to translate any long text without interpretation), and this is one area where apparently scholars have misled people by translating the sentence in question by stating “forever and ever” or some variant.

I intend to show that the relevant clause IS properly translated as “forever and ever” and that it DOES refer to eternity. I will do this in two ways. First, I will address the semantic properties of the various syntactic constituents in the phrase. Second, I will address the semantic range and use of the relevant lexical item (aion) itself.

To start, let us look at the relevant passage itself:

Rev. 14:11- And the smoke of their torment ascendeth up for ever and ever: and they have no rest day nor night, who worship the beast and his image, and whosoever receiveth the mark of his name

Now, the part translated as “for ever and ever” (which AK4 objects to) is in Greek &#949;&#953;&#787;&#962; &#945;&#953;&#787;&#969;&#834;&#957;&#945;&#962; &#945;&#953;&#787;&#969;&#769;&#957;&#969;&#957;/ eis aionas aionon or IN(To).prep AGE/EON.acc.pl AGE/EON.gen.pl. Literally rendered, the phrase reads “into the ages of the ages.”

But what does that phrase mean? As I said, I will approach this in two ways. The first is to deal with the semantic values of the syntactic constituents of the phrase.

First and foremost, we have aion in the accusative case. Now, anyone who has studied Greek or Latin (or even one of the Germanic languages, for that matter) will most likely immediately associate this case with the D(irect) O(bject), and only secondarily with other semantic roles. As such, the accusative for most classicists or students of biblical Greek is primarily a syntactic case, and only secondarily a semantic one.

However, this was likely not the original role of the accusative. For almost a century now, a number of Indo-European specialists have postulated that at some point the mother language of Greek (called Proto-Indo-European or PIE) possessed ergative syntax.

The “ergative” case is likely a foreign term even to professors of Classical Languages. Basically, an ergative language distinguishes between the subject of a transitive verb on the one hand (which is marked as ergative) and the subject of an intransitive verb and the object of the transitive verb on the other. In other words, in an ergative language, the word “you” in the sentence “I love you” and in the sentence “You awoke” would both be marked the same (as absolutive), while the “you” in “you hit him” would be marked as ergative. In a language like Latin, Greek, or English, this type of distinction is not made. All subjects are marked the same (nominative in Greek and Latin) and the Direct Object is marked differently.

Recently however, criticisms have been leveled against the theory that PIE was an ergative language. These criticisms most importantly involve aspects of PIE which do not cohere with any known ergative language. Instead, many experts in PIE are now proposing that PIE was an Active language.

An Active language does not possess transitive verbs at all. Rather, it distinguishes between active verbs (to stand up, to make, to move) and stative verbs (to be standing up, to be dry, to become old, etc). Also, nouns in active languages are distinguished as either animate or inanimate, and this aids in determining their roles in a sentence.

For my purposes, it doesn’t matter if PIE was ergative or active (although I believe it was an active language), because either type would have the same relevancy for my point: the initial role of the accusative.

As I said earlier, any student of Greek will most likely associate the accusative case first and foremost with the DO (direct object). However, if PIE was either ergative or active, a direct object as it existed in Greek was not present. Rather, it is likely that the accusative case came to be associated as DO through a semantic mapping of the feature of “goal” into the object of most verbs.

In other words, the accusative which evolved into the Greek accusative was at least as much a semantic as a syntactic case, and certain semantic roles (like that of Goal) were earlier than the syntactic role of DO.

Even in Homer, the accusative can function by itself in a purely semantic role. One of these roles is the goal accusative as one of motion, on a spatial plane:

Toi d’ ham heponto Argeion basilees hosoi kekleato boulen/ and the kings of the Argives were following, those who had been called to the council.

What is important to note here is that to the council is represented only by a single accusative. The “motion goal” is within the case itself. Unlike with later Greek (and even in Homer this is rare) no preposition is needed.

Furthermore, if localist grammar has taught us anything, the mapping of the spatial plane onto a temporal one is a cross-linguistic phenomenon. Certainly, it is present in Greek. The words or phrases which mean “across space” can also mean “across time.” The same is true with through space/time, into space/time, etc.

The point of all of this is that the accusative of time (which, in any large reference grammar, is found somewhere under the list of possible uses of the accusative) is actually simply an aspect of the general meaning of the accusative itself. To draw a simple diagram, the various uses of the accusative (direct object, motion towards, extent of time, etc) can all be represented as such:

X ----------------------------------------->

By the time of the Greek of the New Testament, the accusative had to be used with a preposition in order for it to have any of its former semantic values, as by this time it was the DO par excellence.

So, in Rev. 14:11, we have the preposition eis. This preposition is late in Greek, having developed from dialectical borrowing of a variant of a similar preposition en. This preposition is now needed to represent a semantic value which the accusative had on its own at one time. It is noteworthy that such semantic roles of Goal (whether spatial or temporal) are still limited to the accusative, even though prepositions are now required.

Eis with the accusative, when referring to time, is used to indicate the time until a certain state occurs (for example, until a certain year). Again, in a diagram, this can be visualized as X----------------------------------------------> where X is the starting point and the accusative takes you into its referent. For example, kai nu ken es dekaten geneen heteron g’ eti boskoi/ indeed into the tenth generation would it also feed someone else.” Od.19.294

The limit placed on the extent of the accusative of time is in the noun placed in the accusative itself. In the above example, the tenth generation is in the accusative case, and so the extent of time will last up until the tenth generation.

2 Timothy 2:14, "Keep reminding them of these things. Warn them before God against quarreling about words; it is of no value and ruins those who listen."

That's because people who don't like what God says may spend their whole lives trying to redefine words like "is' to make the bible say the opposite of what it says.:D Trying to change the words in Rev. 20:10 into the opposite of what they say, only ruins those who listen. Only God's word remains forever. The words that humans add like adding "not' before forever in that verse will pass away when humans die. ;)
 

AK4

Well-Known Member
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Again, this doesn't address my argument (plus it is a bit ridiculous to use Thayer). Certain prepositions go with certain cases in greek BECAUSE of the semantics of that case. "eis" is really the preposition "en" which has undergone morphological/phonological changes due to dialectical differences in various forms of ancient.

Nonetheless, it goes with the accusative (and I wouldn't say "governs" although this is an area of linguistic debate) because of the semantic nature of the accusative case in greek. The accusative is a goal oriented case. As I said, in a diagram it can be represented by ------------------------->

This is true whether we are talking about spatial or temporal, or even more abstract (affectedness, for example) concepts. For example, most verbs take the accusative as a direct object because of this "goal oriented" nature of this case.

Now, when it comes to motion, as I said, all the eis + acc. case means is ----->

What exactly the goal is is determined by the noun in question. For example, if you what to say "I am going into the house/ eis domon erchomai" the eis + acc. only gives you a goal oriented direction of ------------------>

The only reason you know where the motion ends is because of the noun placed in the accusative. In other words, --------------x|house]x-->

The referent "house" indicates that the goal-motion of the eis + acc. stops at the house. The eis + acc. itself does not.

With the phrase in question, we have ---------------X|ages:---->
with no clear "goal." In other words, the referent in the accusative does not HAVE a stopping point the way "house" does in "into the house."

To make this even MORE clear, the author adds a genitive for emphasis. Its not just into the ages, but into the ages of ages. This emphasis makes SURE that the sense of forever is clear. I gave you several examples from koine greek which indicate this.







Have you studied any other languages? Constructions are language specific. In greek, I can't say "His name is John." It doesn't work, even though it works well in english. I have to say "name to him John." In German, I can't say "I helped him." I have to say "I helped to/for him." In French, I can't say "I'm taking a course" I have to say "I follow a course."

In other words, just because a particular construction doesn't work in english doesn't mean it won't work in another language. In Greek, you CAN say "into the eternities of the eternities" just like you can say "I am angry with him" in English but "I am angry against him" in French.





Only greek doesn't have "of."
We put it into the language in english, because we don't really have the genitive case. In this case, the genitive adds emphasis by making sure that the goal-oriented accusative never reaches its goal (i.e. goes on forever). So not only do we have ---------------------------> but all those infinite lines are captured in a endless line of infinite lines. The "forever" is made clear.

i had a great response to all this but my cpu crashed:faint:and i lost everything i put. i will try to respond again to this. *depressed*
 

AK4

Well-Known Member
2 Timothy 2:14, "Keep reminding them of these things. Warn them before God against quarreling about words; it is of no value and ruins those who listen."

That's because people who don't like what God says may spend their whole lives trying to redefine words like "is' to make the bible say the opposite of what it says.:D Trying to change the words in Rev. 20:10 into the opposite of what they say, only ruins those who listen. Only God's word remains forever. The words that humans add like adding "not' before forever in that verse will pass away when humans die. ;)

Amen:clap:clap
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
The words that humans add like adding "not' before forever in that verse will pass away when humans die. ;)
Interesting, because that is exactly what AK4 is trying to do. He believes the verse doesn't say forever. I'm am showing it does.
 

AK4

Well-Known Member
Oberon
What exactly the goal is is determined by the noun in question. For example, if you what to say "I am going into the house/ eis domon erchomai" the eis + acc. only gives you a goal oriented direction of ------------------>

I will try to summarise what I had last time. I can agree with you here. Yes The goal is these ages. God doesn’t tell us much after these ages except that He will be all in all and of His kingdom there will be no end and only continuous growth. The ages is when He and His saints reign, judge the world, save everyone, make everything anew, etc etc. working up to the eventual consummation of all things. This leads up to Jesus abolishing death and putting everything under His feet After that when those ages have finished we are told that Jesus hands over the kingdom and God becomes all in all and then we are told that “No eye has seen, no ear has heard, no mind has conceived what God has prepared for those who love him". The goal/plan is in these ages. It is the “into the house”.

The NT is mainly written for those true believers and It tells us what the goal is. Although the OT and NT is all one, the NT gives us more detail on Gods plan/goal. Actually His plan is mentioned very early in Genesis, but translations like the KJV has hidden it so many don’t know of His plan.

Anyways “into the ages of ages” or you could say the ages of making things anew to come to the point where God will be all in all, then another age begins.

I wish I didn’t loose what I had the first time because I explained it a lot better than this one

The only reason you know where the motion ends is because of the noun placed in the accusative. In other words, --------------x|house]x-->
Yes -----------x[ages]x----à. You are dead on with this example. These ages are within the ages. That is why these ages are “the ages of ages”. Theres already been six ages, we are in the seventh. Theres at least two more and then ----well God doesn’t tells us except what I put above.

The referent "house" indicates that the goal-motion of the eis + acc. stops at the house. The eis + acc. itself does not.
That’s not true. An age is a period of undefined length marked by certain characteristics. Noone can tell when an age starts or stops and new one begins. For example does anyone know exactly when the bronze age started and stopped. We know the round abouts, but not the actual start or stop.

With the phrase in question, we have ---------------X|ages:---->
with no clear "goal." In other words, the referent in the accusative does not HAVE a stopping point the way "house" does in "into the house."
It doesn’t have a defined stopping point and for that fact it doesn’t say when it starts either and that’s all. Another point to add is ages can overlap too.

To make this even MORE clear, the author adds a genitive for emphasis. Its not just into the ages, but into the ages of ages. This emphasis makes SURE that the sense of forever is clear. I gave you several examples from koine greek which indicate this.
No It makes sure you know that these ages ARE the ages that God starts making everything anew and this is the hope of the believer to be resurrected and do all the things listed above in those ages.

Have you studied any other languages?
Spanish, but that was a while ago

Constructions are language specific. In greek, I can't say "His name is John." It doesn't work, even though it works well in english. I have to say "name to him John."
Yes I do know this. Heres an example

"WAS DU NICHT WEISST
MACH DICH NICHT HEISS"
Okay. What is that in English? First she informed me the Germans choose these specific words to express this old colloquial saying, because it rhymes so nicely. Here is an exact word for word translation into English:
"WHAT YOU DON’T KNOW
MAKES YOU NOT HOT"
That’s a word for word translation, but as you can plainly hear, in English the rhyme is gone. And we don’t normally speak that way in English either, so the second line of word order must be changed:
"WHAT YOU DON’T KNOW
DOESN’T MAKE YOU HOT"


Believe me i do know how translation works somewhat and why there are no error free translations

In other words, just because a particular construction doesn't work in english doesn't mean it won't work in another language. In Greek, you CAN say "into the eternities of the eternities" just like you can say "I am angry with him" in English but "I am angry against him" in French.
No you cant because eternity and ages are total opposites

American heritage

  1. Ages--ages Informal An extended period of time: left ages ago.
  2. a generation or a series of generations: ages yet unborn.
  3. a great length of time: I haven't seen you for an age. He's been gone for ages
n. pl. e·ter·ni·ties Time without beginning or end; infinite time.

In all those definition of ages you have a beginning and a end. Not so with eternities at all. So you cant go INTO eternities because that marks a beginning

the genitive adds emphasis by making sure that the goal-oriented accusative never reaches its goal (i.e. goes on forever).
In all due respect, I don’t know how that makes sense to you. So for example God states that His goal to abolish death, yet are you saying that God will not reach His goal because that is the last enemy. The people who are thrown into the LOF/the second death (although I know the true spiritual meanings of these, but for this post I will debate on what may be your understanding) will stay dead or there will be just one real, real, real, real, real, stubborn person that God cannot save or abolish death from, so these ages will go on and on and on …..

So not only do we have ---------------------------> but all those infinite lines are captured in a endless line of infinite lines. The "forever" is made clear.

So let me ask you something. If eternity is Time without beginning or end; infinite time, how do they who are tormented enter INTO the eternites of eternities? Where is the starting point of eternity? If eternity is represented by a perfect circle can you point to the starting point of the circle?
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
Yes -----------x[ages]x----à. You are dead on with this example. These ages are within the ages. That is why these ages are “the ages of ages”. Theres already been six ages, we are in the seventh. Theres at least two more and then ----well God doesn’t tells us except what I put above.

Your missing the point. With the referent house the goal is clearly marked. The accusative isn't an eternal motion because the noun "house" indicates the goal. You don't have that with ages, because there is no limit. "Into the ages" goes on and on, unlike into the house, because while "house" ensures a stopping point by virtue of the referent in the accusative, "ages" does not. And this is compounded by the genitive, making the sense of eternity even MORE clear.

That’s not true. An age is a period of undefined length marked by certain characteristics. Noone can tell when an age starts or stops and new one begins. For example does anyone know exactly when the bronze age started and stopped. We know the round abouts, but not the actual start or stop.


First, you are still stuck on English, but for the moment that isn't the problem. If the author had said "into the seven ages" or into "this age" or something like that, then the referent, like "house" would have a clear goal. A single "age" is as you say an undefined length of time (although in greek aion is most typically a lifetime in the singular). But the author did not use the word "age." If the author had, there would be no problem, but instead we have "ages" in the plural without any referent indicating a definite goal.

In other words, the goal accusative ---------------->
is not stopped by house, because "ages" has not limit to it in the noun referent itself. And again, you have the genitive to reinforce that.

It doesn’t have a defined stopping point and for that fact it doesn’t say when it starts either and that’s all. Another point to add is ages can overlap too.

A defined stopping point would be required. As for starting, you are mistaking the entire construction. The eis + acc. is only about goal. It simply indicates the "forwardness" and says nothing in and of itself about the start.


No It makes sure you know that these ages ARE the ages that God starts making everything anew and this is the hope of the believer to be resurrected and do all the things listed above in those ages.

Only it doesn't. I gave you several examples where the sense of eternity is clear. Moreover, nothing in the line says anything about ages beginning anew or resurrection. It simply discusses torment FOREVER. The "Into the ages" construction could be enough on its own, but to make sure the sense of "forever" is there we have the genitive. Now instead of one line ---------------->
we have multiple endless lines encased within multiple endless lines, each one without an end.

-------------------------------->
--------------------------------->
---------------------------------->
------------------------------------->

etc.

A whole slew of endless ages are placed within an even more undefined set of more ages. Think of when you are looking into a mirror, and a mirror is also behind you. You get those endless reflections. Think of each reflections as "into the ages" and each "into the ages" encased in an endless line of even more eternities.

The whole concept is very clearly eternal.

No you cant because eternity and ages are total opposites

American heritage

  1. Ages--ages Informal An extended period of time: left ages ago.
  2. a generation or a series of generations: ages yet unborn.
  3. a great length of time: I haven't seen you for an age. He's been gone for ages
n. pl. e·ter·ni·ties Time without beginning or end; infinite time.


You talk about knowing other languages, but then you use an english dictionary to define greek words used in greek constructions. The word "aion" does not correspond exactly to the English word age. In the singular, it can correspond to an age, a lifetime, a generation, etc. In the plural, it can refer to multiple generations, to eternity, to a specific number of ages, etc. With the construction in revelations, it is clearly a reference to eternity.


In all those definition of ages you have a beginning and a end. Not so with eternities at all. So you cant go INTO eternities because that marks a beginning

Again, you are using english. I can't say "name to him John" in English. I can't say "his name was John" in Greek. In greek, you can say "into the eternities of eternities," but just like "name to him John" it doesn't mean anything in English. So a better translation is "forever and ever."


In all due respect, I don’t know how that makes sense to you. So for example God states that His goal to abolish death, yet are you saying that God will not reach His goal because that is the last enemy. The people who are thrown into the LOF/the second death (although I know the true spiritual meanings of these, but for this post I will debate on what may be your understanding) will stay dead or there will be just one real, real, real, real, real, stubborn person that God cannot save or abolish death from, so these ages will go on and on and on …..

You are taking a semantic usage of case (goal) and taking it as a talking about literal "goals." That isn't what "goal accusative" means. For example, if I say in English "I am going to the store" I do that without thinking that my grammatical construction is using a present progressive rather than simple present to indicate a particular meaning. These terms like "present progressive" or "goal accusative" are grammatical terms to describe how languages work. In greek, a speaker would say "into the eternities" without thinking "I have to use eis with the accusative to indicate goal." That would come naturally.

I'm not saying anything about God's ultimate plan or goals or whatever. I am simply describing Greek grammar to you.

So let me ask you something. If eternity is Time without beginning or end; infinite time, how do they who are tormented enter INTO the eternites of eternities? Where is the starting point of eternity? If eternity is represented by a perfect circle can you point to the starting point of the circle?

Again, you are using english. The greek construction doesn't say anything about beginnings, only a limitless motion forward into time ------------------------->

The beginning of this motion is supplied by context (i.e. this punishment will be brought to pass) but the actual "eternity" construction simply refers to an endless motion forward in time, i.e. forever.
 
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