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Are Jews still God's Chosen People?

Saint Frankenstein

Here for the ride
Premium Member
The purpose of having a chosen nation was so that mankind could find the Messiah. Abraham was chosen to be the one through whom the Messiah would come from. The mosaic law was given to the descendants of Abraham to ensure that when he did arrive, people would be able to identify him and he would be born into a spiriutally and morally clean nation (relatively speaking). He had to be born in the line of King David of the tribe of Judah... this narrowed down how mankind could identify the messiah.
After arriving, the door opened to people from all nations to approach God through the Messiah.

So there is no more 'chosen people' today. The purpose of having a 'chosen nation' has been accomplished. We are all on a level playing field now.

^This.

We're all chosen by God to become one of His people and a citizen of His Kingdom. It's up to us to accept or reject the offer, however. This offer was always granted to all humans who could always come to know God through their own natural reasoning, but the OT Jews had a specific mission - to prepare the world for the arrival of the Messiah, the Savior. That mission is accomplished.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
^This.

We're all chosen by God to become one of His people and a citizen of His Kingdom. It's up to us to accept or reject the offer, however. This offer was always granted to all humans who could always come to know God through their own natural reasoning, but the OT Jews had a specific mission - to prepare the world for the arrival of the Messiah, the Savior. That mission is accomplished.
Jesus is Deific to Xians. Therefore, Jesus isn't ''Jewish'', any more than a deity would be. He happened to incarnate in Israel, so we get the perspective of the 'man' God, as He walked among us, from that area,/tradition; however 'Jesus', , JHVH, is for everyone. For the more historically minded people, *Josephus claimed that the 'Christians' were a group of Jewish and non-Jewish people, so the earliest message would seem to be one that wasn't just about a "Jewish Messiah". The 'messiah' aspect of Jesus is incidental to His Deity nature.
*I don't adhere to everything Josephus writes, in fact I disagree on some points; however in this instance I believe the veracity of his writings.
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
Most Christians teach that Jesus had both a human and divine nature, and if one takes that position, then Jesus was Jewish through his human birth.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
Most Christians teach that Jesus had both a human and divine nature, and if one takes that position, then Jesus was Jewish through his human birth.
The Deific nature of Jesus makes this idea somewhat moot, imo. We could say that Jesus was 'Jewish', or Hebrew, in the 'man manifestation', of Himself, however, since I wouldn't call a deity "Jewish", I don't feel a need to call Jesus "Jewish". It's like saying, He ate unleavened bread. Ok, cool.
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
The Deific nature of Jesus makes this idea somewhat moot, imo. We could say that Jesus was 'Jewish', or Hebrew, in the 'man manifestation', of Himself, however, since I wouldn't call a deity "Jewish", I don't feel a need to call Jesus "Jewish". It's like saying, He ate unleavened bread. Ok, cool.
He's clearly identified as being Jewish in every way one can look at it, provided that one does believe that he was both human and divine. Secondly, are you saying that Jesus had no human element whatsoever?
 

Terrywoodenpic

Oldest Heretic
Most Christians teach that Jesus had both a human and divine nature, and if one takes that position, then Jesus was Jewish through his human birth.

No Christian doubts that Jesus was born and lived his entire life as an observant Jew.

However it is also clear that he was a mover of goal posts, .what he taught and how he lived brought a new dimension to the teachings of his day.
Some followers believed him to be the Messiah and others tha he was the son of God.

It was not till after his death that a judo Christian sect evolved around him and his teachings.

These new Christians established themselves and their new religion on the foundation of Jewish Scripture. As we do to day, they used what was written to give stength and substance, in the form of prophercy, to their new theology.

None of this changed the Jewish relationship to God one iota.

I have no doubt that Christians have an equally solid relationship with God, but not one defined in the same contractual terms as the Jewish covenant.

Christians have an individual duty to understand and come to terms with their own personal redemption. A Jew Has his necessary list of covenanted tasks/duties. always set out before him. Neither has any guarantees.
 

Amadon

New Member
No Christian doubts that Jesus was born and lived his entire life as an observant Jew.

However it is also clear that he was a mover of goal posts, .what he taught and how he lived brought a new dimension to the teachings of his day.
Some followers believed him to be the Messiah and others tha he was the son of God.

It was not till after his death that a judo Christian sect evolved around him and his teachings.

These new Christians established themselves and their new religion on the foundation of Jewish Scripture. As we do to day, they used what was written to give stength and substance, in the form of prophercy, to their new theology.

None of this changed the Jewish relationship to God one iota.

I have no doubt that Christians have an equally solid relationship with God, but not one defined in the same contractual terms as the Jewish covenant.

Christians have an individual duty to understand and come to terms with their own personal redemption. A Jew Has his necessary list of covenanted tasks/duties. always set out before him. Neither has any guarantees.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
He's clearly identified as being Jewish in every way one can look at it, provided that one does believe that he was both human and divine. Secondly, are you saying that Jesus had no human element whatsoever?
Jesus was "Jewish" in the sense of the man aspect. That man aspect is there, but is not the priority for Xians. The focus, I believe, should be on the message delivered while 'man' /as He walked among us, and His Deific authority necessary to changing the laws in the first place. I personally would not describe Jesus as fully human and fully divine, rather part man.
 
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Amadon

New Member
I would like to reply to your question, are the Jews still Gods chosen people? If you would like to see one of Gods chosen people, get up and go look in the mirror. God chose you the day you were born and then he waits to see if you will chose him.
 

gsa

Well-Known Member
^This.

We're all chosen by God to become one of His people and a citizen of His Kingdom. It's up to us to accept or reject the offer, however. This offer was always granted to all humans who could always come to know God through their own natural reasoning, but the OT Jews had a specific mission - to prepare the world for the arrival of the Messiah, the Savior. That mission is accomplished.

But they also had a covenant that is described as everlasting. Does that change with the advent of Christianity?
 

gsa

Well-Known Member
Could you provide a verse that says that?

Oh, and this article is worth taking a look at: Answering Jewish Objections to the New Covenant of Christ - Christian Research Institute

Gen 17:7 ("I will establish my covenant as an everlasting covenant between me and you and your descendants after you for the generations to come, to be your God and the God of your descendants after you."); Gen
17:13 ("He that is born in thy house, and he that is bought with thy money, must needs be circumcised; and My covenant shall be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant."); Exodus 31:16 ("So the sons of Israel shall observe the sabbath, to celebrate the sabbath throughout their generations as a perpetual covenant.")...I'm sure that there are more.
 

Saint Frankenstein

Here for the ride
Premium Member
Gen 17:7 ("I will establish my covenant as an everlasting covenant between me and you and your descendants after you for the generations to come, to be your God and the God of your descendants after you."); Gen
17:13 ("He that is born in thy house, and he that is bought with thy money, must needs be circumcised; and My covenant shall be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant."); Exodus 31:16 ("So the sons of Israel shall observe the sabbath, to celebrate the sabbath throughout their generations as a perpetual covenant.")...I'm sure that there are more.

This is a complex subject and from my searches it even goes into the meaning of Hebrew words. On one hand, we have verses that prophecy the coming of a New Covenant. Also, the Mosaic Covenant was conditional.

Here's the part from the aforementioned article that pertains to this:
"
THE OLD COVENANT WAS TEMPORARY

Jeremiah prophesied that God would make a “new covenant” unlike the old one. The old, however, would not remain side-by-side with the new. “‘Then it shall come to pass, when you are multiplied and increased in the land in those days,’ says the Lord, ‘that they will say no more, “The ark of the covenant of the Lord.” It shall not come to mind, nor shall they remember it, nor shall they visit it, nor shall it be made anymore’” (Jer.3:16, emphases added; see also Isa.43:18; 65:17).

The “ark of the covenant” represented the Mosaic covenant. It was the receptacle for the two tablets of the Ten Commandments, the centerpiece of the Mosaic institution. When Jeremiah said that the “ark of the covenant” will “not come to mind,” he was symbolically referring to the Mosaic covenant. It would not come to mind because it would be replaced by another system that would “feed [them] with knowledge and understanding” (Jer.3:15). If the Mosaic covenant would not be remembered, then it would certainly not be in effect.

The Mosaic was not merely limited in duration; it was also limited in location to its Promised Land setting. Moses reminded Israel: “You shall not at all do as we are doing here today—every man doing whatever is right in his own eyes—for as yet you have not come to the rest and the inheritance which the Lord your God is giving you” (Deut.12:8–9, emphasis added).

Israel was free from many of the legal stipulations as long as it had not yet reached the Promised Land. The fact that the Israelites born during the desert wandering had not been circumcised provides strong evidence of this (Josh.5:5).

The Mosaic covenant was never called “everlasting.” This wasn’t because Scripture seldom describes covenants in general as everlasting. On the contrary, many covenants are so referenced; but never the Mosaic. The first covenant mentioned in the Bible is the one that was made with Noah (Gen.9:16; Isa.54:9–10) and it was called “everlasting.”

The next covenant was that made with Abraham and subsequently extended to Isaac and Jacob. This too was termed an “everlasting” covenant (Gen.17:19,13; Ps.105:9–10,42; 1Chron.16:15–17).7

The Mosaic covenant was next. This one formed the center of Israelite thought and practice and had center stage throughout the bulk of the Hebrew Scriptures. The Scriptures, however, never referred to it as “everlasting” or “eternal” or by any other term to that effect.8 The absence of any such description is profoundly significant given the covenant’s prominent place in Israelite life.

The next covenant was a “perpetual” covenant given within the framework of the Mosaic: the Sabbath (Exod.31:17). The perpetuity of the Sabbath, however, doesn’t suggest that the Mosaic covenant was also perpetual. If the Mosaic covenant had been everlasting, it would have been unnecessary to state that its various features were likewise everlasting. The Sabbath, therefore, was distinguished as perpetual because the Mosaic was not.

The next covenant also was given within the context of the Mosaic. This was the promise to Phinehas of a “covenant of an everlasting priesthood” (Num.25:13). This covenant, as with the Sabbath, stood in contrast to the Mosaic covenant. If the Mosaic had been everlasting, it would have been redundant to offer Phinehas, the Levite, an everlasting priesthood, since all the specifications of the Mosaic already would have been understood as everlasting, including the provision of an everlasting priesthood for the Levites. This covenant with Phinehas was called “everlasting” also because its promise was a done deal, and ultimately would be fulfilled in the priesthood of all believers (Exod.19:6; 1Pet.2:5).

The next divinely commissioned covenant concerned David. This too was an “everlasting” covenant (2Sam.23:5; Isa.55:3).

The Mosaic covenant is sharply contrasted with the others. Why is a covenant that is so important and central not regarded as everlasting? Fulfillment of the everlasting covenants depended on one thing—the faithfulness of God to keep His promises. In contrast, the Mosaic depended on the faithfulness of humankind. Scripture always radically distinguishes the two: God’s faithfulness is certain, while ours is a twisted mess (Ps.14:1)."

Answering Jewish Objections to the New Covenant of Christ - Christian Research Institute

There's also a good discussion of it here: israel - Was the Covenant made with the Church or does 'Everlasting' mean something other than 'eternal?' - Christianity Stack Exchange
 

gsa

Well-Known Member
This is a complex subject and from my searches it even goes into the meaning of Hebrew words. On one hand, we have verses that prophecy the coming of a New Covenant. Also, the Mosaic Covenant was conditional.

Here's the part from the aforementioned article that pertains to this:
"
THE OLD COVENANT WAS TEMPORARY

Jeremiah prophesied that God would make a “new covenant” unlike the old one. The old, however, would not remain side-by-side with the new. “‘Then it shall come to pass, when you are multiplied and increased in the land in those days,’ says the Lord, ‘that they will say no more, “The ark of the covenant of the Lord.” It shall not come to mind, nor shall they remember it, nor shall they visit it, nor shall it be made anymore’” (Jer.3:16, emphases added; see also Isa.43:18; 65:17).

The “ark of the covenant” represented the Mosaic covenant. It was the receptacle for the two tablets of the Ten Commandments, the centerpiece of the Mosaic institution. When Jeremiah said that the “ark of the covenant” will “not come to mind,” he was symbolically referring to the Mosaic covenant. It would not come to mind because it would be replaced by another system that would “feed [them] with knowledge and understanding” (Jer.3:15). If the Mosaic covenant would not be remembered, then it would certainly not be in effect.

The Mosaic was not merely limited in duration; it was also limited in location to its Promised Land setting. Moses reminded Israel: “You shall not at all do as we are doing here today—every man doing whatever is right in his own eyes—for as yet you have not come to the rest and the inheritance which the Lord your God is giving you” (Deut.12:8–9, emphasis added).

Israel was free from many of the legal stipulations as long as it had not yet reached the Promised Land. The fact that the Israelites born during the desert wandering had not been circumcised provides strong evidence of this (Josh.5:5).

The Mosaic covenant was never called “everlasting.” This wasn’t because Scripture seldom describes covenants in general as everlasting. On the contrary, many covenants are so referenced; but never the Mosaic. The first covenant mentioned in the Bible is the one that was made with Noah (Gen.9:16; Isa.54:9–10) and it was called “everlasting.”

The next covenant was that made with Abraham and subsequently extended to Isaac and Jacob. This too was termed an “everlasting” covenant (Gen.17:19,13; Ps.105:9–10,42; 1Chron.16:15–17).7

The Mosaic covenant was next. This one formed the center of Israelite thought and practice and had center stage throughout the bulk of the Hebrew Scriptures. The Scriptures, however, never referred to it as “everlasting” or “eternal” or by any other term to that effect.8 The absence of any such description is profoundly significant given the covenant’s prominent place in Israelite life.

The next covenant was a “perpetual” covenant given within the framework of the Mosaic: the Sabbath (Exod.31:17). The perpetuity of the Sabbath, however, doesn’t suggest that the Mosaic covenant was also perpetual. If the Mosaic covenant had been everlasting, it would have been unnecessary to state that its various features were likewise everlasting. The Sabbath, therefore, was distinguished as perpetual because the Mosaic was not.

The next covenant also was given within the context of the Mosaic. This was the promise to Phinehas of a “covenant of an everlasting priesthood” (Num.25:13). This covenant, as with the Sabbath, stood in contrast to the Mosaic covenant. If the Mosaic had been everlasting, it would have been redundant to offer Phinehas, the Levite, an everlasting priesthood, since all the specifications of the Mosaic already would have been understood as everlasting, including the provision of an everlasting priesthood for the Levites. This covenant with Phinehas was called “everlasting” also because its promise was a done deal, and ultimately would be fulfilled in the priesthood of all believers (Exod.19:6; 1Pet.2:5).

The next divinely commissioned covenant concerned David. This too was an “everlasting” covenant (2Sam.23:5; Isa.55:3).

The Mosaic covenant is sharply contrasted with the others. Why is a covenant that is so important and central not regarded as everlasting? Fulfillment of the everlasting covenants depended on one thing—the faithfulness of God to keep His promises. In contrast, the Mosaic depended on the faithfulness of humankind. Scripture always radically distinguishes the two: God’s faithfulness is certain, while ours is a twisted mess (Ps.14:1)."

Answering Jewish Objections to the New Covenant of Christ - Christian Research Institute

There's also a good discussion of it here: israel - Was the Covenant made with the Church or does 'Everlasting' mean something other than 'eternal?' - Christianity Stack Exchange


Interesting. But is this the RCC position? In the Evangelii Gaudium, Pope Francis states the covenant with the Jews was never revoked:

Relations with Judaism

247. We hold the Jewish people in special regard because their covenant with God has never been revoked, for “the gifts and the call of God are irrevocable” (Rom 11:29). The Church, which shares with Jews an important part of the sacred Scriptures, looks upon the people of the covenant and their faith as one of the sacred roots of her own Christian identity (cf. Rom 11:16-18). As Christians, we cannot consider Judaism as a foreign religion; nor do we include the Jews among those called to turn from idols and to serve the true God (cf. 1 Thes 1:9). With them, we believe in the one God who acts in history, and with them we accept his revealed word.

248. Dialogue and friendship with the children of Israel are part of the life of Jesus’ disciples. The friendship which has grown between us makes us bitterly and sincerely regret the terrible persecutions which they have endured, and continue to endure, especially those that have involved Christians.

249. God continues to work among the people of the Old Covenant and to bring forth treasures of wisdom which flow from their encounter with his word. For this reason, the Church also is enriched when she receives the values of Judaism. While it is true that certain Christian beliefs are unacceptable to Judaism, and that the Church cannot refrain from proclaiming Jesus as Lord and Messiah, there exists as well a rich complementarity which allows us to read the texts of the Hebrew Scriptures together and to help one another to mine the riches of God’s word. We can also share many ethical convictions and a common concern for justice and the development of peoples.

While I recognize that an apostolic exhortation isn't doctrine, can it contradict such fundamental doctrines?
 

Kolibri

Well-Known Member
Gen 17:7 ("I will establish my covenant as an everlasting covenant between me and you and your descendants after you for the generations to come, to be your God and the God of your descendants after you."); Gen
17:13 ("He that is born in thy house, and he that is bought with thy money, must needs be circumcised; and My covenant shall be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant."); Exodus 31:16 ("So the sons of Israel shall observe the sabbath, to celebrate the sabbath throughout their generations as a perpetual covenant.")...I'm sure that there are more.

Mixing up the Abrahamic Covenant and the Mosaic Law Covenant? All the nation's are truly blessing themselves by means of the Abrahamic Covenant already. That offspring of Abraham was initially made up of only people that were circumcised in the flesh. The 'heart circumcision' is something they all still partake in. This circumcision now gives them a new hope, one to heavenly duties that will have a direct impact on this planet and the people on it.

The Abrahamic Covenant was unilateral, like the Davidic. The Law Covenant was bi-lateral. The Jews broke their end of the contract very quickly, but Jehovah chose to maintain his end of the contract till 33 C.E. and to limit the collecting of Abraham's offspring to Jews and Samaritans only till 36 C.E. (such is stated in the Christian Greek Scriptures and also via scriptures like Hosea 10, Daniel 9:27, and Jeremiah 31)
 
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Saint Frankenstein

Here for the ride
Premium Member
Interesting. But is this the RCC position? In the Evangelii Gaudium, Pope Francis states the covenant with the Jews was never revoked:



While I recognize that an apostolic exhortation isn't doctrine, can it contradict such fundamental doctrines?

Well, it goes back to Paul's letter to the Hebrews. Basically that God hasn't completely abandoned the Jews and He still has a role for them to play in the world today. I mean, it is somewhat of a miracle that they haven't been wiped out as a people even though many have tried to do just that.

However, there are various theological opinions in the Catholic Church pertaining to Judaism and the Jewish people. But as to your question about how that quote would fit into the framework of Catholic theology, I found this answer on the Catholic.com forum to be most illuminating:

"But the Covenant that God made to Abraham and the Jewish people has never been revoked, it can't be. That would make God contradict himself, for He swore by himself.

For when God made a promise to Abraham, since he had no one greater by whom to swear, he swore by himself, saying, "Surely I will bless and multiply you." And thus Abraham, having patiently endured, obtained the promise. Men indeed swear by a greater than themselves, and in all their disputes an oath is final for confirmation. So when Hod desired to show more convincingly to the heirs of the promise the unchangeable character of his purpose, he interposed with an oath, so that by two unchangeable things, in which it is impossible that God should prove false we who who have fled for refuge might have strong encouragement to seize the hope set before us.
(Heb 6:13-18)

The covenant has been fulfilled and expanded and perfected with the advent of Christ, but it has never ceased, and notice, Florence nowhere said it has, it only talks about the end of the Mosaic rituals.

What Pope Francis said is very biblical, and doesn't contradict Florence. Francis wasn't talking about the temple sacrifices, which is what Florence is talking about.

The Holy Father is only following St. Paul's lead:

I ask then, has God rejected his people? By no means!... As regards the gospel they are enemies of God, for your sake; But as regards election they are beloved for the sake of their forefathers. For the gifts and the call of God are IRREVOCABLE.(Rom 11:1,28-29)"

Heresy in Evangelii Gaudium? - Page 2 - Catholic Answers Forums

So basically we would agree that the physical signs (the rituals, etc.) of the Old Covenant are no longer valid, but we would not say "terminated" or "nullified", but rather, "fulfilled" or "completed".The Old Covenant has been perfected in Christ and expanded to include all of humanity.

As for the Jews, they are still called to accept Christ and we should continue to minister to them. But they are not accursed or abandoned by God. They are our spiritual ancestors and we hope that they will one day accept their King and many Christians believe that the Jewish people will come to Christ at the End Times.
 

gsa

Well-Known Member
Well, it goes back to Paul's letter to the Hebrews. Basically that God hasn't completely abandoned the Jews and He still has a role for them to play in the world today. I mean, it is somewhat of a miracle that they haven't been wiped out as a people even though many have tried to do just that.

However, there are various theological opinions in the Catholic Church pertaining to Judaism and the Jewish people. But as to your question about how that quote would fit into the framework of Catholic theology, I found this answer on the Catholic.com forum to be most illuminating:

"But the Covenant that God made to Abraham and the Jewish people has never been revoked, it can't be. That would make God contradict himself, for He swore by himself.

For when God made a promise to Abraham, since he had no one greater by whom to swear, he swore by himself, saying, "Surely I will bless and multiply you." And thus Abraham, having patiently endured, obtained the promise. Men indeed swear by a greater than themselves, and in all their disputes an oath is final for confirmation. So when Hod desired to show more convincingly to the heirs of the promise the unchangeable character of his purpose, he interposed with an oath, so that by two unchangeable things, in which it is impossible that God should prove false we who who have fled for refuge might have strong encouragement to seize the hope set before us.
(Heb 6:13-18)

The covenant has been fulfilled and expanded and perfected with the advent of Christ, but it has never ceased, and notice, Florence nowhere said it has, it only talks about the end of the Mosaic rituals.

What Pope Francis said is very biblical, and doesn't contradict Florence. Francis wasn't talking about the temple sacrifices, which is what Florence is talking about.

The Holy Father is only following St. Paul's lead:

I ask then, has God rejected his people? By no means!... As regards the gospel they are enemies of God, for your sake; But as regards election they are beloved for the sake of their forefathers. For the gifts and the call of God are IRREVOCABLE.(Rom 11:1,28-29)"

Heresy in Evangelii Gaudium? - Page 2 - Catholic Answers Forums

So basically we would agree that the physical signs (the rituals, etc.) of the Old Covenant are no longer valid, but we would not say "terminated" or "nullified", but rather, "fulfilled" or "completed".The Old Covenant has been perfected in Christ and expanded to include all of humanity.

As for the Jews, they are still called to accept Christ and we should continue to minister to them. But they are not accursed or abandoned by God. They are our spiritual ancestors and we hope that they will one day accept their King and many Christians believe that the Jewish people will come to Christ at the End Times.


So as a practical matter, what is it that distinguishes Jews from Muslims in Catholic thought?
 

Saint Frankenstein

Here for the ride
Premium Member
So as a practical matter, what is it that distinguishes Jews from Muslims in Catholic thought?

Jews are the spiritual forebears and Christianity is seen as the fulfillment of Judaism. So we are to have great respect for Jews.

As for Muslims, it's more complicated because Islam came centuries after Christianity and we certainly don't accept Muhammad as a prophet. It's been the official line at the Vatican to say that Christians and Muslims adore the same God (which makes sense because the Vatican is concerned about diplomacy, as well) but there's no agreement about that and we're not doctrinally required to believe that. Nevertheless, we are called to have respect and show charity to all. But so far, this respect and dialogue seems awfully one-sided.

Has the Catholic Church endorsed Islam?

That Vatican II document seems to be trying to find some common ground with Islam, but it doesn't say that, for example, Islam is a valid path to salvation or that Islam even has all that much in common with Christianity. The Church recognizes that all religions may have some truths in them due to the natural reasoning available to all human beings leading them to attain such truths. So that's not exactly something special in regards to Islam.

An apologist on one site put it this way:

"
The Church teaches that God can save in ways known only to Himself, those whom He knows would have accepted Christ, had they fully understood the Gospel. Obviously that means being exposed to it for starters so this isn't just about Muslims. It's includes anyone who through no fault of their own aren't Catholics.

The Church does not say that Muslims will be saved simply by being good Muslims. It recognizes that they worship the God of Abraham but remember that is very nuanced. The God of Abraham is Elohim . . . while we also know Him to be the God of Isaac and Jacob, the Muslims don't.

They believe the blessings of Abraham came through Ishmael.

So all the Church is doing is recognizing that there is some very limit Catholic truth found in Islam and we praise them for it. Again, we are looking for a point of common ground from where to start a dialogue, just as we would with our Protestant bothers, with whom we share significantly more Catholic truth."

Can you explain the Catholic Church's teaching on Islam and how do I deal with cultural issues?

Another article: Do Catholics and Muslims Worship the Same God? - Crisis Magazine
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