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Are people born inherently atheist?

ArtieE

Well-Known Member
Edit: I don't accept the qualifers "strong," "weak," "implicit", "explicit," "gnostic" or "agnostic" as being meaningfully different from atheism in its base sense.
Atheism in its base sense is "an absence of belief in gods", "not having a belief in gods".
1. Adding weak means "I don't believe in gods but I don't disbelieve in them either". Meaningfully different.
2. Adding strong means "I disbelieve in gods". Meaningfully different.
3. Adding gnostic to strong atheist means "I disbelieve in gods and know for a fact they don't exist". Meaningfully different.
4. Adding agnostic to strong atheist means "I disbelieve in gods but can't say I know for a fact if they do or don't exist". Meaningfully different.
 

Curious George

Veteran Member
To say "gods don't exist" is to say "I don't believe in gods."

We believe in things that have the appearance of truth. To disbelieve is to say things do not have the appearance of truth.

No one says, "There are no gods," who doesn't mean, "I believe there are no gods."

Except me.

Edit: I don't accept the qualifers "strong," "weak," "implicit", "explicit," "gnostic" or "agnostic" as being meaningfully different from atheism in its base sense.

That is a false dichotomy if we say not believing =/= disbelief

And not logically sound if we discard the law of the excluded middle and replace it with uncertainty. Such that given some persons expression we still do not know whether they believe or disbelieve because the expression was not determinative.
 

Willamena

Just me
Premium Member
Atheism in its base sense is "an absence of belief in gods", "not having a belief in gods".
1. Adding weak means "I don't believe in gods but I don't disbelieve in them either". Meaningfully different.
2. Adding strong means "I disbelieve in gods". Meaningfully different.
3. Adding gnostic to strong atheist means "I disbelieve in gods and know for a fact they don't exist". Meaningfully different.
4. Adding agnostic to strong atheist means "I disbelieve in gods but can't say I know for a fact if they do or don't exist". Meaningfully different.
"Not having belief in gods" is not equivalent to "an absence of belief in gods," and the latter isn't necessary to make a case for any of those. They are all "I don't believe in gods."

1. "I don't believe in gods but I don't disbelieve in them either".
2. "I don't believe in gods."
3. "I don't believe in gods because know the way that they don't exist."
4. "I don't believe in gods because I can't say I know for a fact that they do or don't exist."
5. (Implicit) "That guy over there doesn't believe in gods because he doesn't know what the heck they are."
6. (explicit) "I know what it is I don't believe in regarding gods."

Belief in gods isn't lacking from any of those statements. It's there in each of them. It doesn't mean the person making the claim believes in gods, just that the belief in gods exists.
 

Willamena

Just me
Premium Member
That is a false dichotomy if we say not believing =/= disbelief
I don't believe I said that.

Which is to say that I disbelieve I said that.

And not logically sound if we discard the law of the excluded middle and replace it with uncertainty. Such that given some persons expression we still do not know whether they believe or disbelieve because the expression was not determinative.
I agree. Either a thing is or it is its negation.
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
No, I am pretty sure that it is possible to express it, and do so in a way that still maintains mutual exclusivity. you just have to add an "or" and define theism as a lack of atheism.
Alternatively, you could just leave the definitions as is. That wasn't the point. The point is that if you define an atheist as "not a theist", then this there is something that must define a theist for an atheist to not be one. Defining atheism as not theism and theism as not atheism is logically consistent but of no use for my purposes.

So, I could say that atheism= not being capable of having a belief about God or not believing in any God, and then I would define theism = not being atheistic.
I don't agree with the definition of atheism I used, and the first time I presented my pseudo-proof (actually, each time) was to counter the argument that we can just define an atheist as "not a theist" and be done. However, the reason I had to use a pseudo-proof (apart from the fact that most people don't know formal logic), is because of the way predicates are represented in classical logic. "not being capable of having" is even worse than "believe" for a formal representation, although the added difficulties don't make it any less a pseudo-proof than the one I gave. The definition itself isn't a problem, as we could just define them as I think you suggest above: in terms of one another. Formally, that's fine. Practically, it's useless. I have to define an atheist as "not a theist" simply because that's the definition I'm addressing, and in order to say anything useful that can be represented in a real formal derivation I need to be able to negate things without ambiguity. So, for example, if I represent Gx as "x is capable of having a belief in god", I cannot I use it to apply the necessary inference rules even if I restrict the domain to people.

Tx = "is a theist"
Gx = "x is capable of having a belief in god"
Ax = "x is an atheist"

(∀x) (Ax→ ~Gx) |A
(∀x) (Ax →~Tx) |A
(∀x) (Ax→~Gx) | Reiterated
(∀x) (Ax→ ~Tx) |Reiterated
Au→ ~Gu |universal quantifier elimination
Au→ ~Tu | ditto
Tu → ~ Au | negation elimination and MT
Gu → ~Au |ditto
Tu ⇔ ~Au | biconditional intro
(∀x) (Tx ⇔~Ax) | universal quantifier intro

I could have shown the same formalizing my own proof using Bxy to be "x believes in y", having g = god, Tx and Ax as is, and starting with the necessary definition of atheist. The problem is that in predicate logic one can only negate the entire predicate. Mental state predicates trigger indirect speech, which means that slots aren't like normal. I can't avoid negating the predicate and at the same time negate the belief. Not in classical logic.

That should fulfill what they are saying including not having belief and not being a theist
But "not having a belief" isn't the definition. It's a byproduct. The definition is that atheists are not theists. Also, my goal wasn't to present a logical formulation of the definitions, but to link the definition demanded with what it entailed. However, as I said, there isn't a way to do that well in classical logic because it isn't suited for propositional attitudes.

However, this does little to remedy Kilgore's rocks or your resentment about the lack of distinguishing atheists from infants.

True. Also, although I could be wrong, I don't think it would satisfy the ones who argue that atheism is a lack of belief, because at least most still define atheist solely as "not a theist" and I doubt I could convince someone of what this entailed without using that as the definition. Perhaps most importantly, my goal that prompted not the pseudo-proof but the one you responded to was not relating atheists to beliefs. I already did that in a way I could represent in classical logic, and it was already denied because my use of inference rules led to the statement that atheists believe gods don't exist (or they don't believe gods exist), and as that isn't the definition then it wasn't accurate. Once simple inference rules are denied, the project became more an interesting exercise than anything else.

However, in trying to look at logics that are designed to deal with things like mental state predicates/propositional attitudes/etc., I realized that arguably all of formal logic is about the truth value of propositions, and that as belief is an epistemic expression of the likelihood of the truth of some proposition, it's not just that the logics designed to deal with beliefs can't express what certain atheists have stated here. It's that the reason they can't is because absence of belief isn't possible (the possible exception being utter ignorance and thus incapable of comprehending a proposition). I had said that earlier, but then I was thinking more about cognitive science, neuroscience, and the philosophy of language. It didn't occur to me when, even before my pseudo-proof, I said classical logic wasn't equipped for this that actually even the logics designed for this don't lend incorporate ways to deal with absence of belief. And for similar reasons. The epistemic scale ranges from certainty of untruth/false to certainty of truth, but any epistemic commitment to a proposition means locating one's belief on that scale, and logics just try to formalize this.
 
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LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
And not logically sound if we discard the law of the excluded middle and replace it with uncertainty.

The problem is that uncertainty is a belief claim/epistemic state. We can go well beyond a three-valued logic and use an infinite interval with a membership by using fuzzy logic defined on [0,1], but uncertainty is not absence of belief anymore than disbelief is. By saying I am uncertain I am giving my belief about the likelihood that some proposition is true. I am expressing my belief as a position somewhere on the epistemic scale. I am not saying I lack a belief, but defining it as a function of my confidence that the proposition's true.


Such that given some persons expression we still do not know whether they believe or disbelieve because the expression was not determinative.
We can't mistake indeterminate truth value with an absence of belief. A major impetus for this phrase is that atheists seek to deny the assertion that atheism entails belief. If it were mere indeterminacy due to uncertainty, then we could simply define it as such. In normal speech, we say things all the time that are neither an expression belief or disbelief: "I don't know", "I'm not sure", "I'm uncertain", etc. However, all of these are assertions. They make a claim about one's belief about god. If I am uncertain, it means it must be the case that I believe it is possible god exists, for otherwise I would be certain god doesn't exist. The reason for the "absence" part is to avoid having one's definition of atheism is not just to deny disbelief and belief, but to avoid the possibility that one's position entails belief that it is possible god exists.
 
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LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
I agree. Either a thing is or it is its negation.
My whole problem is that I don't believe in non-existent things.

But there are people who do.

But what is a thing? How would you respond to the sorites paradox? Are likert scales inherently unsound?

It seems that your objection to non-classical logics isn't just an issue of ontology, as it is one thing to say that god(s) must exist or not exist, and another to say that one can either believe they exist or disbelieve. But I'm confused by your use of "non-existent things" because here we are talking about beliefs, which are properties not things, and so I am not sure what precisely you are objecting to.

Let's say that I'm expressing my belief that my team will win a game that can't end in a draw (insert any team and sport as I couldn't care less). If I say I believe there's a 50% chance they'll win, can that not be true? If so, doesn't it imply that I don't I believe they will win? However, I also don't believe they will lose. I disbelieve that they will win and disbelieve they will lose. However, those are the only possible outcomes. Can I not say that I neither believe they will win nor disbelieve that they will win because my belief is I am uncertain?
 

ArtieE

Well-Known Member
"Not having belief in gods" is not equivalent to "an absence of belief in gods,"
Yes it is. "Not having belief in gods" doesn't require that you know what gods are or what belief is. Please don't tell us that you don't understand that "not having a car" doesn't require that the person who doesn't have a car knows what a car is. My example only applies to a person who knows what gods and beliefs are.
 
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ArtieE

Well-Known Member
I don't believe I said that.

Which is to say that I disbelieve I said that.
You just said "I do not believe I said that. Which is to say that I disbeleieve I said that" :) You have always "not believed" in a god you've never heard of but to disbelieve in this god you must have heard of him. You really don't understand the difference?
 
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Curious George

Veteran Member
Alternatively, you could just leave the definitions as is. That wasn't the point. The point is that if you define an atheist as "not a theist", then this there is something that must define a theist for an atheist to not be one. Defining atheism as not theism and theism as not atheism is logically consistent but of no use for my purposes.


I don't agree with the definition of atheism I used, and the first time I presented my pseudo-proof (actually, each time) was to counter the argument that we can just define an atheist as "not a theist" and be done. However, the reason I had to use a pseudo-proof (apart from the fact that most people don't know formal logic), is because of the way predicates are represented in classical logic. "not being capable of having" is even worse than "believe" for a formal representation, although the added difficulties don't make it any less a pseudo-proof than the one I gave. The definition itself isn't a problem, as we could just define them as I think you suggest above: in terms of one another. Formally, that's fine. Practically, it's useless. I have to define an atheist as "not a theist" simply because that's the definition I'm addressing, and in order to say anything useful that can be represented in a real formal derivation I need to be able to negate things without ambiguity. So, for example, if I represent Gx as "x is capable of having a belief in god", I cannot I use it to apply the necessary inference rules even if I restrict the domain to people.

Tx = "is a theist"
Gx = "x is capable of having a belief in god"
Ax = "x is an atheist"

(∀x) (Ax→ ~Gx) |A
(∀x) (Ax →~Tx) |A
(∀x) (Ax→~Gx) | Reiterated
(∀x) (Ax→ ~Tx) |Reiterated
Au→ ~Gu |universal quantifier elimination
Au→ ~Tu | ditto
Tu → ~ Au | negation elimination and MT
Gu → ~Au |ditto
Tu ⇔ ~Au | biconditional intro
(∀x) (Tx ⇔~Ax) | universal quantifier intro

I could have shown the same formalizing my own proof using Bxy to be "x believes in y", having g = god, Tx and Ax as is, and starting with the necessary definition of atheist. The problem is that in predicate logic one can only negate the entire predicate. Mental state predicates trigger indirect speech, which means that slots aren't like normal. I can't avoid negating the predicate and at the same time negate the belief. Not in classical logic.


But "not having a belief" isn't the definition. It's a byproduct. The definition is that atheists are not theists. Also, my goal wasn't to present a logical formulation of the definitions, but to link the definition demanded with what it entailed. However, as I said, there isn't a way to do that well in classical logic because it isn't suited for propositional attitudes.



True. Also, although I could be wrong, I don't think it would satisfy the ones who argue that atheism is a lack of belief, because at least most still define atheist solely as "not a theist" and I doubt I could convince someone of what this entailed without using that as the definition. Perhaps most importantly, my goal that prompted not the pseudo-proof but the one you responded to was not relating atheists to beliefs. I already did that in a way I could represent in classical logic, and it was already denied because my use of inference rules led to the statement that atheists believe gods don't exist (or they don't believe gods exist), and as that isn't the definition then it wasn't accurate. Once simple inference rules are denied, the project became more an interesting exercise than anything else.

However, in trying to look at logics that are designed to deal with things like mental state predicates/propositional attitudes/etc., I realized that arguably all of formal logic is about the truth value of propositions, and that as belief is an epistemic expression of the likelihood of the truth of some proposition, it's not just that the logics designed to deal with beliefs can't express what certain atheists have stated here. It's that the reason they can't is because absence of belief isn't possible (the possible exception being utter ignorance and thus incapable of comprehending a proposition). I had said that earlier, but then I was thinking more about cognitive science, neuroscience, and the philosophy of language. It didn't occur to me when, even before my pseudo-proof, I said classical logic wasn't equipped for this that actually even the logics designed for this don't lend incorporate ways to deal with absence of belief. And for similar reasons. The epistemic scale ranges from certainty of untruth/false to certainty of truth, but any epistemic commitment to a proposition means locating one's belief on that scale, and logics just try to formalize this.


Um you should be able to negate fine. "there is a theist who is not a person that believes in God or Gods" .or there is an atheist who is a person who believes in gods"

I do not think the problem is the belief in God portion, I think the problem is the conflicting domains and trying to define atheist by theist. in order for atheist to cover people who are undefined as theists and not simply not theists you have to extend the domain. If atheism is a function of theism then the domain will be restricted. So we have to enlarge the domain by not limiting atheism to just "not theism" but we can include not theism in that definition as well to appease those who want mutual exclusivity.

I think you and I are on the same page here due to your "n+2" comments a while ago. But I am pretty sure that we disagree on belief statements because theism->belief can be expressed if x is atheist then x is a person who believes in God. This can be negated as well as an atheist is not a person who believes in God can be negated.
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Um you should be able to negate fine. "there is a theist who is not a person that believes in God or Gods"

You know that formal logic involves symbols and particular rules for representing variables, operators, etc. But it seems like you don't know that this is what I was referring to, so not only is your suggestion unnecessarily complicated here, but it doesn't relate to the issue of having a derivation that was at least translatable into an unambiguous formal system. What you propose above is, of course, so trivially obvious I can't help but feel more than a little offended that you feel this necessary to say. However, I attribute it to lack of context, so that should help us understand one another better:

If carbon can become a theist then carbon can be "not a theist". :) If the word "carbon" replaces the word "theist" then whatever can turn into carbon can be called "not carbon (yet)".
I am going to assume you've never taken formal logic so we'll settle for an informal derivation using your definitions:

1) If a person is a theist, then they believe god exists | Definition

2) If a person is an atheist, then they are not a theist |Definition

3) If a person does not believe god exists, then they are not a theist | True by modus tollendo tollens given 1)

4) If person does not believe god exists, they are an atheist | True by 2) and 3)


When you simply repeat definitions without taking into account particular nuances of these, you can easily find yourself contradicting your own views.

The first response?
We are talking about weak atheists! Use the correct terms so what you write can be understood!

So I added that "weak" despite the utter irrelevancy. Below is my proof in addition to the comments a member gave, but I have included only the statements where I was said to be incorrect:

1) If a person believes god exists, then they are a theist| Definition

2) If a person is not a theist, then they are a weak atheist |Definition

3) If a person believes god does not exist, then they are not a theist | True by modus tollendo tollens given 1)

4) If person is an atheist, they believe god does not exists | True by 2) and 3)
Incorrect. If a person is a strong atheist they believe god does not exist

Alternatively, consider the proposition G: "God or gods exist"

1) If a person believes proposition G is true, then that person is a theist | Definition

2) If a person is not a theist, then that person is an atheist | Definition

Incorrect. If a person is not a theist, then that person is either a weak atheist or a strong atheist.

3) If a person believes proposition G is not true, then that person is not a theist | MT

4) If a person believes proposition G is not true, that person believes "gods or god exists" is not true | Identity

5) If a person believes "god or gods exist" is not true, that person is an atheist |true by 2), 3), & 4)

In all of the informal derivations that assume only your definition, we still find that an atheist believes things about god.

The responses, one I included above, said nothing about the logic. This was the objection:

False

Atheism is ONLY about what one is not. A theist

Of course this wasn't true. However, one person did get that the inference rules were the key and expressed this perfectly:
However, the contradictory of "believes god exists" can also be stated as "doesn't believe god exists."
In English, sure. Not in logic, though, but of course as is the proof can't be put into classical logic. As I said a while back, you can't use regular predicate calculi for mental state predicates because they trigger indirect speech. But the point was more to show that one doesn't escape that things must hold true for an atheist simply by defining them as 'not theist".

The negation you seem to think so trivial involves the distinction Kilgore pointed out and the reason I didn't use formal logic. As negation it is trivial in the general sense but not if, as I expressed I the first post you responded to, a formal derivation. I'm not sure you understand what my point was as your first solution negated the entirety of any use of any proof as the requirement was that atheists be defined by not theists, not be equivalent. I'm not sure how much you've been keeping up with the disaster of a thread, so there seems to be a basic understanding between us about what the other intends/means.

The primary goal was to show that defining an atheist as "not a theist" entailed particularly things. Ideally, I wanted a structure that showed the way I phrased belief I the pseudo-proofs. Classical logic can't do this as one can't negate a predicate argument but only the predicate.

However, people are insisting over and over that "doesn't believe x" should be taken in this case as distinct from to "believe not x". So I would have liked to show how this difference can be represented. I can't do that in classical logic because negations negate the entire predicate and "doesn't believe x" requires negating the *Bx~y, where the second constant is negated. But this isn't a WFF.


or there is an atheist who is a person who believes in gods"

???

I do not think the problem is the belief in God portion
I think that it may not be clear (for good reason, a lot of the points I made regard posts I linked to here that were made some time ago and even they didn't exist in isolation.


If atheism is a function of theism then the domain will be restricted

It's restricted because of people.
So we have to enlarge the domain by not limiting atheism to just "not theism"
I'm not trying to argue for the definition I gave in the proofs but against it. I've explained that over and over again that it's undoubtedly a maze for anybody stepping in having missed even a few key posts.

This can be negated as well as an atheist is not a person who believes in God can be negated.

By negation, I don't mean of the type that you began the post with. I'm talking about symbolic negation in predicate calculi.
 
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idav

Being
Premium Member
You know that formal logic involves symbols and particular rules for representing variables, operators, etc. But it seems like you don't know that this is what I was referring to, so not only is your suggestion unnecessarily complicated here, but it doesn't relate to the issue of having a derivation that was at least translatable into an unambiguous formal system. What you propose above is, of course, so trivially obvious I can't help but feel more than a little offended that you feel this necessary to say. However, I attribute it to lack of context, so that should help us understand one another better:



The first response?


So I added that "weak" despite the utter irrelevancy. Below is my proof in addition to the comments a member gave, but I have included only the statements where I was said to be incorrect:



The responses, one I included above, said nothing about the logic. This was the objection:



Of course this wasn't true. However, one person did get that the inference rules were the key and expressed this perfectly:


The negation you seem to think so trivial involves the distinction Kilgore pointed out and the reason I didn't use formal logic. As negation it is trivial in the general sense but not if, as I expressed I the first post you responded to, a formal derivation. I'm not sure you understand what my point was as your first solution negated the entirety of any use of any proof as the requirement was that atheists be defined by not theists, not be equivalent. I'm not sure how much you've been keeping up with the disaster of a thread, so there seems to be a basic understanding between us about what the other intends/means.

The primary goal was to show that defining an atheist as "not a theist" entailed particularly things. Ideally, I wanted a structure that showed the way I phrased belief I the pseudo-proofs. Classical logic can't do this as one can't negate a predicate argument but only the predicate.

However, people are insisting over and over that "doesn't believe x" should be taken in this case as distinct from to "believe not x". So I would have liked to show how this difference can be represented. I can't do that in classical logic because negations negate the entire predicate and "doesn't believe x" requires negating the *Bx~y, where the second constant is negated. But this isn't a WFF.

It looks like it works fine. Not theist as a definition is the same thing as, not a believer.
 

ArtieE

Well-Known Member
Originally Posted by idav
It looks like it works fine. Not theist as a definition is the same thing as, not a believer.

That's one of the most intelligent statements made in this thread.
Not theist is the same thing as not a believer. There are two kinds of not theists, weak atheists who are just not believers and strong atheists who are not believers and in addition disbelievers. Not having a belief requires nothing of you not even that you know what a belief is. Not having a car doesn't require anything of you not even that you know what a car is.
 

Curious George

Veteran Member
You know that formal logic involves symbols and particular rules for representing variables, operators, etc. But it seems like you don't know that this is what I was referring to, so not only is your suggestion unnecessarily complicated here, but it doesn't relate to the issue of having a derivation that was at least translatable into an unambiguous formal system. What you propose above is, of course, so trivially obvious I can't help but feel more than a little offended that you feel this necessary to say. However, I attribute it to lack of context, so that should help us understand one another better:



The first response?


So I added that "weak" despite the utter irrelevancy. Below is my proof in addition to the comments a member gave, but I have included only the statements where I was said to be incorrect:



The responses, one I included above, said nothing about the logic. This was the objection:



Of course this wasn't true. However, one person did get that the inference rules were the key and expressed this perfectly:


The negation you seem to think so trivial involves the distinction Kilgore pointed out and the reason I didn't use formal logic. As negation it is trivial in the general sense but not if, as I expressed I the first post you responded to, a formal derivation. I'm not sure you understand what my point was as your first solution negated the entirety of any use of any proof as the requirement was that atheists be defined by not theists, not be equivalent. I'm not sure how much you've been keeping up with the disaster of a thread, so there seems to be a basic understanding between us about what the other intends/means.

The primary goal was to show that defining an atheist as "not a theist" entailed particularly things. Ideally, I wanted a structure that showed the way I phrased belief I the pseudo-proofs. Classical logic can't do this as one can't negate a predicate argument but only the predicate.

However, people are insisting over and over that "doesn't believe x" should be taken in this case as distinct from to "believe not x". So I would have liked to show how this difference can be represented. I can't do that in classical logic because negations negate the entire predicate and "doesn't believe x" requires negating the *Bx~y, where the second constant is negated. But this isn't a WFF.




???


I think that it may not be clear (for good reason, a lot of the points I made regard posts I linked to here that were made some time ago and even they didn't exist in isolation.




It's restricted because of people.

I'm not trying to argue for the definition I gave in the proofs but against it. I've explained that over and over again that it's undoubtedly a maze for anybody stepping in having missed even a few key posts.



By negation, I don't mean of the type that you began the post with. I'm talking about symbolic negation in predicate calculi.

Ok you are probably going to hate me a little more, but my point was that if you start with the correct if...then it will be easier to express what they are trying to say symbolically. I, NOW, understand that you are were later trying to show a nuanced difference between"does not believe x" and "believes not x." I definitely understand that you are trying to work with their definitions to show them why they are wrong, why not work with what they are saying and change their definitions?
 

ArtieE

Well-Known Member
Ok you are probably going to hate me a little more, but my point was that if you start with the correct if...then it will be easier to express what they are trying to say symbolically. I, NOW, understand that you are were later trying to show a nuanced difference between"does not believe x" and "believes not x." I definitely understand that you are trying to work with their definitions to show them why they are wrong, why not work with what they are saying and change their definitions?
Our definitions aren't wrong how would it be possible for him to show they are wrong?
 

AmbiguousGuy

Well-Known Member
One can perhaps think he creates a word in his head, but in my opinion, it is not a word until someone else agrees with him that it is indeed a word.

Um... that seems glaringly obvious. Do you think that gerfump is a useful word if no one but you believes it to be a word?

Words are objects which try to communicate meaning, aren't they?
 

AmbiguousGuy

Well-Known Member
I agree. Atheism and theism are dependent on belief. If there be no beliefs in the room, there are no atheists nor theists in the room.

What's a belief exactly? Can you give me a formal definition? I'm not asking for you to cut something out of a dictionary. I'm wondering if you understand the concept yourself.

I'd be curious if anyone here would like to present his personal definition of 'belief'.
 

Curious George

Veteran Member
Our definitions aren't wrong how would it be possible for him to show they are wrong?

It already happened a while back and apparently he is now trying to come up with a proof showing that not believing x =/= believing not x (which i imagine has been done before). But, I am pretty sure you can get what you want by extending the definition of atheist so it includes the inability to believe, or by letting go of the inverse theist definition.

But, I might be wrong, the inverse theist definition might actually work. I will get back to you.
 
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