Well, of course! There is such a thing as the bible, after all. One is bound to refer to it. But what you conveniently neglected to include were all the times Jesus followed "It is written" with "But I tell you..."
It's a shame that you don't investigate things a little more sojourner. When Jesus said this he was not dismissing what was "written". He was dismissing the Pharisees rather rigid interpretation of the law. He actually said..."you heard it was said (by the Pharisees)...but I say to you".....correcting the Pharisees is what he did on a regular basis.
We really don't know what Jesus did or did not know. We only know what the gospel authors said he knew.
Yes we do.....we have the first hand accounts in the scriptures......are we to take your word over theirs?
1 Corinthians 2:16...
"For who has known the mind of the Lord, so as to advise him? But we have the mind of Christ."
And since none of them knew Jesus, what they thought is not authoritative as to what Jesus knew.
Matthew and John were constant companions of Jesus as his apostles. They may not have written their accounts till later, but then scripture is not the work of men....it is inspired by God. (2 Tim 3:16, 17) It matter little to God if you believe that or not.
That's a story that has No. Historical. Evidence. Whatsoever. The fact is, the Hebrews are much older than their oldest religious writings. That is fact.
Who is disputing that?
The designation “Hebrew” was already familiar to the Egyptians in the 18th century B.C.E. This would seem to indicate that Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob had become quite well known over a wide area, thus making the appellative “Hebrew” a recognizable one. When Joseph spoke of “the land of the Hebrews” (
Ge 40:15) to two of Pharaoh’s servants, he doubtless referred to the region around Hebron that his father and forefathers had long made a sort of base of operations.
Six centuries later the Philistines still spoke of the Israelites as “Hebrews.” During the time of King Saul “Hebrews” and “Israel” were equivalent terms. (
1Sa 13:3-7; 14:11; 29:3) In the ninth century B.C.E. the prophet Jonah identified himself as a Hebrew to sailors (possibly Phoenicians) on a boat out of the seaport of Joppa. (
Jon 1:9) The Law also distinguished “Hebrew” slaves from those of other races or nationalities (
Ex 21:2; De 15:12), and in referring to this, the book of Jeremiah (in the seventh century B.C.E.) shows the term “Hebrew” to be then the equivalent of “Jew.”—
Jer 34:8, 9, 13, 14.
In later periods Greek and Roman writers regularly called the Israelites either “Hebrews” or “Jews,” not “Israelites.”
That's what the authors said. Not what God said. Even so, the earliest written laws didn't exist for thousands of years of the Hebrews' history.
What has that got to do with anything?
You really need to stop telling the Jews their business. God said, I AM. "I AM" is not "Jehovah."
God's name YHWH never meant "I Am".
YHWH (Je·hoʹvah) the causative form, the imperfect state, of the Heb. verb
ha·wahʹ(become); meaning “He Causes to Become”
Or this definition....."A name of the Hebrew God, represented in Hebrew by the tetragrammaton ("four letters")
יהוה (Yod Heh Vav Heh), transliterated into Roman script
Y H W H. Because it was considered blasphemous to utter the name of God it was only written and never spoken. This resulted in the original pronunciation being lost. The name may have originally been derived from the old Semitic root
הוה (hawah) meaning "to be" or "to become"."
Behind the Name: Meaning, Origin and History of the Name Yahweh