“The account of the origins and transmission of knowledge and the sciences as depicted in the combined reports is clear. Zoroaster received from Ohrmazd the Good God the texts of the Avesta, which include all knowledge (§1). The destruction wrought upon Persia by Alexander the Great, however, caused these texts to be dispersed throughout the world (§2). The Greeks and the Egyptians derived their knowledge from these Zoroastrian texts which Alexander had translated into Greek and Coptic (§3). Subsequently Sasanian emperors took it upon themselves to collect all these texts and the knowledge that was derived from them from the various places where they had been scattered (§§6–7): the sources name India and Byzantium, and Abū-Sahl adds China...
The main point made by the accounts as a whole is that all the sciences derive originally from the Avesta, i.e., the Zoroastrian canon, and that their preservation, collection, and promulgation are due to the Sasanians and most prominently to Ardašīr I, Sābūr I, and Chosroes I Anūširwān. This view, which was widespread in the first ‘Abbāsid century and can be witnessed in a number of related works,26 also found expression, at what may be considered a popular level, in the belief that Zoroaster himself was the author of all existing sciences and that he wrote them in all the languages of the world...
What all three versions agree in conveying, moreover, is that any Greek book is by definition part of the Zoroastrian canon since it was Alexander’s pillage of Iran that caused these books to be known among the Greeks; and hence its translation and study would mean recovering the ancient Persian knowledge. ”
Excerpt From: Gutas, Dimitri. “Greek Thought, Arabic Culture.”
Does anyone know if this is still a contemporary belief, that Zoroaster was the author of all existing sciences and thus any foreign scientific text is ultimately the recovering of Persian knowledge, or is it more tied to Sassanian political ideology than Zoroastrian belief?