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Atheists: What would be evidence of God’s existence?

Trailblazer

Veteran Member
So it is not evidence then, that was just a presupposition involving a circular reasoning fallacy. If you believe a deity inspired the bible, then you believe the bible was divinely inspired and so is evidence, wickedly simple, but entirely circular.
Yes, it is circular but that does not mean that it is not true that the deity inspired the Bible.

Circular arguments are perfectly valid

18th August 201718th August 2017 by Tim van der Zee

You have likely heard the claim that circular arguments are wrong or incoherent. In this short post I will outline why this is not the case. Circular arguments are perfectly fine; in fact, they can be quite convincing!

Lets start with perhaps the most famous bad example of a circular argument:

God exists because the bible says so, and the bible is true because God exists.

It is clear that this is circular, as each statement depends on the other to be true. It’s also a bad argument from a logical standpoint, as logical arguments tend to be formulated in “if A than B”, and this formulation is missing here. This emphasizes the other weak aspect of this argumentation: both claims have a rather low prior probability.

Lets see what happens when we rephrase the above argument to the following:

If the bible is true God exists, and, if God exists the bible is true.

While both claims still have the same very low probability, it is now a more coherent – albeit circular – line of reasoning. Is there anything wrong with these arguments because they are circular? No. The circularity does not reduce the validity of these arguments in any way. That is, there is nothing inherently wrong with circular argument, although this does not mean that all circular arguments are valid and/or sound.

Lets examine this a little further by stripping this argumentation type to its most abstract form:

If A then B. If B then A

It should be more clear now that this line of reasoning is perfectly valid. Each individual statement is perfectly valid, and the combination of the two are also valid. In fact, if B stands for something with a non-zero prior probability than the inclusion of the second argument increases the probability that A is true. This is why these types of circular arguments are not only completely valid, they can be convincing as well – if used properly.

The real problem is in how circular arguments are used. That is, most informal uses of circular arguments will look like this:

If the the bible is true God exists, and if God exists the bible is true. Therefor: the bible is true and God exists.

Of course this is not sound. Likewise, just because ‘if A then B’ and ‘if B then A’ are perfectly valid, they do not lead to the sound conclusion that A and/or B are true. Simply because a line of reasoning is logically valid, they can merely be vacuously valid, such as the following statement:

If [something impossible/false] is true, then [insert any claim]

The above statement is technically correct (the best kind of correct!), it is also utterly meaningless as the antecedent is false. No logician will stop you from making this claim, but no rational person will update his believes in any way after hearing it. The validity of an argument is only the first step to consider: you also need to consider the probability of the antecedents (e.g., the probability that the bible is true). In the case of circular arguments you also need to especially wary that they are often used incoherently.

To recap.

It is perfectly valid to state:

If A then B. If B then A.

In fact, the above is more informative and stronger than just claiming either, and can thus be used to convince someone who already holds either A or B to be true (or false). In and by itself this line of reasoning should not lead us to consider A and B to be true, just like how just “If A then B” by itself doesn’t lead us to believe that B is true.

It is perfectly invalid to state:

If A then B. If B then A. Therefor: A and B.

http://www.timvanderzee.com/circular-arguments/
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
No, it either contains evidence for a deity or it does not..
It does contain evidence. It is just that you don't believe it.
That doesn't make the evidence subjective.
It's not empirical evidence, no.

People are free to believe whatever they like.
You saying it contains no evidence is what you claim.
I claim that it does.
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
So it is not evidence then, that was just a presupposition involving a circular reasoning fallacy..
It is not circular reasoning at all.
Divinely inspired could mean many things.
I personally believe that it is based on true narratives of actual historic events.
You believe many history books, I'm sure.
..but you don't like the Bible, so you reject it. Your choice.
 

osgart

Nothing my eye, Something for sure
All the more reason to be critical of claims, and set a high standard for objective evidence.



Who has ever claimed otherwise? that doesn't change the fact that irrational claims are far more likely to be incorrect.



What you have just described is inherent bias.



Well that would also be true of any non existent thing. So not a promising start.



This assumes there is anything to find, that would need to be demonstrated, not just assumed.



That's a no true Scotsman fallacy. You are making claims to knowledge, yet offering nothing in support of those claims.



Morality is subjective, the other two claims are both straw man fallacies, as I don't know anyone who makes those claims, but even if someone does, it doesn't remotely evidence a deity.
If morality is subjective then murder is acceptable and no one has a right to judge it. And if morality is objective then there could be a basis for it other than ourselves.
 

samtonga43

Well-Known Member
The Bible is not proof that there is a deity, but it is evidence if one believes it is divinely inspired.

Your logical fallacy is Begging the Question
You presented a circular argument in which the conclusion was included in the premise.
This logically incoherent argument often arises in situations where people have an assumption that is very ingrained, and therefore taken in their minds as a given. Circular reasoning is bad mostly because it's not very good.

Example: The word of Zorbo the Great is flawless and perfect. We know this because it says so in The Great and Infallible Book of Zorbo's Best and Most Truest Things that are Definitely True and Should Not Ever Be Questioned.


Your logical fallacy is begging the question
 

Trailblazer

Veteran Member
It means the claim is irrational, and therefore likely to be incorrect.
No, that is not what it means because if the premises are true, the conclusion must be true.

Circular reasoning (Latin: circulus in probando, "circle in proving"; also known as circular logic) is a logical fallacy in which the reasoner begins with what they are trying to end with.[1] The components of a circular argument are often logically valid because if the premises are true, the conclusion must be true.
Circular reasoning - Wikipedia

Are all circular arguments invalid?

No. The circularity does not reduce the validity of these arguments in any way. That is, there is nothing inherently wrong with circular argument, although this does not mean that all circular arguments are valid and/or sound. It should be more clear now that this line of reasoning is perfectly valid.Aug 18, 2017
Circular arguments are perfectly valid - THE SKEPTICAL SCIENTIST Why is circular reasoning bad?
 

Trailblazer

Veteran Member
You presented a circular argument in which the conclusion was included in the premise.
Circular reasoning (Latin: circulus in probando, "circle in proving"; also known as circular logic) is a logical fallacy in which the reasoner begins with what they are trying to end with.[1] The components of a circular argument are often logically valid because if the premises are true, the conclusion must be true.
Circular reasoning - Wikipedia
 

rational experiences

Veteran Member
I know many people still believe that stuff and care but I don't care. Look around you at what is going on on the world. Those religions are not going to fix anything and Jesus is not coming back to save the world. The Bible is God's Word but it has long since been renewed.

“…….. Once in about a thousand years shall this City be renewed and readorned….

“That City is none other than the Word of God revealed in every age and dispensation. In the days of Moses it was the Pentateuch; in the days of Jesus, the Gospel; in the days of Muhammad, the Messenger of God, the Qur’án; in this day, the Bayán; and in the Dispensation of Him Whom God will make manifest, His own Book—the Book unto which all the Books of former Dispensations must needs be referred, the Book that standeth amongst them all transcendent and supreme.”
Gleanings From the Writings of Bahá’u’lláh, p. 270
After I got brain burnt gas fall irradiated. Brain prickling explanation.

My sight changed.

In rocks gods O earth body I could see etched into it building type structures. God earths stone cities. Began noticing it in movies.

So it made sense to me the teachings about radiation science of man's caused fallout.

The UFO causes.

1000 years activated by earths heated space science causes ignites the asteroid.

It then becomes the wandering star releasing slow travel as cold gas.

Speeding asteroid on fire satanic.

So it replaces a cooled gas cause allowing earths stone not to disintegrate in UFO space radiation overheating.

Gas mass alleviates earths sciences causes.

Was a teaching of science without using mathematical equations

As soon as man says I learn new he then uses the advice just science causes against us.

As he is a known irrational human egotist.

The Baha'i knew why they spoke the way they did. Trying not to give false ideas to men who invented false ideas
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
Betty says:
I believe the Bible is divinely inspired.
Therefore, the Bible is evidence that there is a deity.

Valid?
It depends what you mean by divinely inspired..
The word 'therefore' is also not used correctly.

I believe that the witnesses of Jesus' life in the Bible is true.
The Bible is evidence of the existence of Jesus.
He taught the same as Moses mentioned in the OT about G-d.
I believe that the prophet Moses also existed.
 

Sheldon

Veteran Member
Yes, it is circular but that does not mean that it is not true that the deity inspired the Bible.

It means the claim is irrational, and therefore likely to be incorrect.

No, that is not what it means because if the premises are true, the conclusion must be true.

This was your claim I commented on (emboldened), it is clearly a circular reasoning fallacy. as it uses a begging the question fallacy. It is of course irrational by definition.

Making the unevidenced assumption the bible is divinely inspired, in an argument that it is evidence for the divine, is a begging the question fallacy, and circular reasoning.

The Bible is not proof that there is a deity, but it is evidence if one believes it is divinely inspired.
 

Sheldon

Veteran Member
Circular reasoning (Latin: circulus in probando, "circle in proving"; also known as circular logic) is a logical fallacy in which the reasoner begins with what they are trying to end with.[1] The components of a circular argument are often logically valid because if the premises are true, the conclusion must be true.
Circular reasoning - Wikipedia

You are lecturing people on the definition of a circular reasoning fallacy who already know what it means, which is why we try to avoid using them. You however have used one, in which you assumed the premise of your argument in that argument, the rest is just desperate semantics.
 

Sheldon

Veteran Member
It depends what you mean by divinely inspired..
The word 'therefore' is also not used correctly.

Semantics.

I believe that the witnesses of Jesus' life in the Bible is true.

That's just a bare assertion.


The Bible is evidence of the existence of Jesus.

That is another bare unevidenced assertion.

He taught the same as Moses mentioned in the OT about G-d.
I believe that the prophet Moses also existed.

Two more bare unevidenced claims. None of this represents biblical evidence for a deity, anymore than Harry Potter books are evidence of wizardry. All you're doing is reinforcing the idea that the claim the bible is evidence of a deity, is an empty subjective one. If it were not you wouldn't be reeling of unevidenced claims, and TB using known logical fallacies.

Your claims claims are not just unevidenced, they are nothing more than vague subjective speculation.

However for the sake of argument lets assume (as you have) Moses existed, and lets also assume (as you have) that what is written about Jesus teachings matches what is written about the way Moses taught, purely for the sake of argument.

That still doesn't remotely evidence a deity, why would it? If Harry Potter is portrayed as matching the teachings Dumbledore is portrayed as giving, does this evidence wizardry?
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
That's just a bare assertion.
No .. it's what I believe.
You can believe whatever you like.
..but suggesting that I have no reason to believe it other than mere fancy is nonsense.

Do you believe any history books have any truth in them?
..or do you consider them to all be full of "bare assertions"? :rolleyes:
 

Sheldon

Veteran Member
Sheldon said:
That's just a bare assertion.
No .. it's what I believe.

It was also a bare assertion, they're not mutually exclusive.

You can believe whatever you like...but suggesting that I have no reason to believe it other than mere fancy is nonsense.

Another straw man, as that is not what I said is it, you made a bare assertion (yet again) and I pointed this out.

Do you believe any history books have any truth in them?

Of course, what a bizarre question.

..or do you consider them to all be full of "bare assertions"? :rolleyes:

Can you read? Where have I remotely claimed "all history books are full of bare assertions"? You do love your straw man fallacies.
 

It Aint Necessarily So

Veteran Member
Premium Member
You have convinced yourself that the Bible is not evidence for God based upon what you would expect to see if God had something to do with the writing of the Bible.

I told you why I don't consider the Bible or any words ever written evidence for a deity. Evidence for something is something detectible or discernible that make one of two or more possibilities more likely to be the case. If that is not how you are interpreting evidence, then you're misinterpreting it. Is the existence of the novel Moby Dick evidence for (or against) a God as well? Does its existence make the likelihood of a god greater, less, or the same?

You have convinced yourself that God does not exist based upon what you would expect to see if God existed.

No, I have not concluded that gods don't exist.

I suppose that if I relax my standards enough, I could call Moby Dick evidence that there is no God. You might object, saying that that book in no way rules out gods, and my answer could be like yours: You have convinced yourself that Moby Dick is not evidence against God based upon what you would expect to see.

The words were written by men, but that does not mean they were not inspired by God. That cannot be proven one way or another.

It doesn't need to be proven either way to serve as evidence for a God. It just has to be words that make the existence of a God more likely. I gave you an example with irreducible biological complexity. Such a finding is strong evidence for an intelligent designer, although that intelligence need not be supernatural. That's why the ID people were looking for this feature in nature, and not other kinds of things that could happen without an intelligent designer, such as complexity that it cannot be said could not have arisen naturalistically, such as a DNA molecule.

What you offer as evidence of a God is words that either of us could have written. I'm sure I could. Actually, I think it would be more likely that I could write convincing pseudo-scripture than a classic novel. That is why others are rejecting your assertion that the Bible or any other holy book indicates that a God wrote any part of it.

These are the rules of interpreting evidence. They're not negotiable to one with well developed critical thinking skills. As I've said before, if you want to persuade such a person, you have to play on their field by their rules. If you offer as evidence that which does not make your conclusion more (or less) likely, it will be rejected as evidence for that claim, which is what is happening here.

And your response is basically that you intend to consider those words evidence for a deity anyway. OK. That's obviously adequate for you, but not for the critical thinker. Remember, you began this thread by asking what would be evidence of God's existence. You have been told. That which makes the likelihood of a deity more likely. You claim that words from prophets and messengers do that, but have yet to show a single passage that accomplishes that.

This comment from Sam Harris summarizes where we are at now:
  • "If someone doesn't value evidence, what evidence are you going to provide to prove they should value it? If someone doesn't value logic, what logical argument could you provide to show the importance of logic? Water is two parts hydrogen and one part oxygen. What if someone says, "Well, that's not how I choose to think about water"? All we can do is appeal to scientific values. And if he doesn't share those values, the conversation is over."
What if someone says, that's not how I chose to think about evidence? What if their position is that anything they want to call evidence for their belief is evidence to them even if it doesn't make their belief more likely? Same answer: Then the conversation is over. That's what I meant by playing by rules of critical analysis, which includes knowledge about interpreting evidence.

I fully agree. Some people are skilled at interpreting evidence, includiing scripture, and that is why they see it as evidence for God. It's just the way the world is. It is possible to know things and know that they are correct even if most others cannot see that.

I've told you that the rules for interpreting evidence aren't negotiable. If you choose to do it your own way, then you're off the reservation. I understand the limits of knowledge, and know with certainty that

That is why Jesus said: Matthew 7:13-14 Enter through the narrow gate. For wide is the gate and broad is the road that leads to destruction, and many enter through it. But small is the gate and narrow the road that leads to life, and only a few find it. And why Baha'u'llah wrote: “The Book of God is wide open, and His Word is summoning mankind unto Him. No more than a mere handful, however, hath been found willing to cleave to His Cause, or to become the instruments for its promotion. These few have been endued with the Divine Elixir that can, alone, transmute into purest gold the dross of the world, and have been empowered to administer the infallible remedy for all the ills that afflict the children of men. No man can obtain everlasting life, unless he embraceth the truth of this inestimable, this wondrous, and sublime Revelation.” Gleanings From the Writings of Bahá’u’lláh, p. 183

So you think this kind of writing is evidence for a God? I don't. I could write the same thing about critical thinking:
  • Small is the gate and narrow the road that leads to sound conclusions, and only a fraction develop these skills. These few have the gift of sound critical thought, that alone can tell us what is true about the world, and have been empowered to declare the conclusions of those with faulty reasoning unsound. No man can obtain reliable knowledge about the world unless he embraces the truth of this wondrous and sublime revelation.
I actually have support for my version. The stellar success of science is evidence that this approach to knowledge (epistemology) is valid, and no other method is, since no other method can do that. Baha'u'llah is just making unevidenced claims.

Yes, it is circular but that does not mean that it is not true that the deity inspired the Bible.

Circular arguments are perfectly valid

18th August 201718th August 2017 by Tim van der Zee

You have likely heard the claim that circular arguments are wrong or incoherent. In this short post I will outline why this is not the case. Circular arguments are perfectly fine; in fact, they can be quite convincing!

Lets start with perhaps the most famous bad example of a circular argument:

God exists because the bible says so, and the bible is true because God exists.

It is clear that this is circular, as each statement depends on the other to be true. It’s also a bad argument from a logical standpoint, as logical arguments tend to be formulated in “if A than B”, and this formulation is missing here. This emphasizes the other weak aspect of this argumentation: both claims have a rather low prior probability.

Lets see what happens when we rephrase the above argument to the following:

If the bible is true God exists, and, if God exists the bible is true.

A fallacious argument doesn't mean anything. It supports no proposition. So, you are correct that a circular argument does not rule out that certain ideas in books are not of divine origin. But you also do nothing to support your contention that any words you might offer as evidence supporting your belief are actually that. I suppose a tautology is logically valid, but it does nothing to support any conclusion about reality.

Aren't you arguing that such an argument is supporting your contention that scripture is evidence of a God? Look at your example. I can agree with that, just like I agree that if Bob is an unmarried man, he is a bachelor, and if he is a bachelor, he is an unmarried man. But if you want to say that that tautology is evidence for or against Bob being married or a bachelor, as you seem to be doing with your circular argument, your claim will be rejected. My circular argument says nothing about whether Bob is is single, just as yours says nothing about whether a God actually exists.

If Game of Thrones is correct, then dragons exist, and if dragons exist, Game of Thrones is correct. Do dragons exist? Does this circular argument give you any guidance whatsoever in answering that question? If I offered it as an argument for dragons, would you agree that it was, or reject that? If you rejected it, and I said that's just your opinion implying that mine was just as good, would you agree? Of course not. And neither do those that you make similar arguments to. All either of us can do is shake our heads, you saying, "I don't know why he thinks that evidence for dragons," and me saying the same about gods, and agree with Harris above that if one doesn't share the well developed and tested rules of evidence and reason, then there can be no dialectic, no cooperative discussion or sharing of ideas.
 

Trailblazer

Veteran Member
Betty says:
I believe the Bible is divinely inspired.
Therefore, the Bible is evidence that there is a deity.

Valid?
No, that's not valid because what people believe does not make anything true.
However, if the Bible is divinely inspired then there has to be a deity.

That can never be proven which is what logical argumentation cannot be used for religious claims.
 
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