Thank you for replying. Do you mean Ananias? At least it's a derived concept by someone in the Bible, whereas baptism as a testimony is not a Biblical derived concept.
How so? He already confessed the Lord Jesus and believed in him by this point Acts 22:8,10, yet he still needed his sins washed away. How did he not need to get baptized, if Ananias prescribed baptism calling on Jesus name to do just that? Did he not need his sins washed away? And did Jesus just command it without a reason, did he say "Just do it" ? One difference between the belief system you ascribe to and the scriptures is that the scriptures don't just say it's commanded, they say why it's commanded Mark 16:16, Acts 2:38-39, Acts 22:16, Romans 6:4-7, Galatians 3:26-27, etc. There's never a testimony reason for getting baptized mentioned in any of the scriptures. At least having sins washed away is mentioned.
With all due respect, this isn't evidence. This is just expressing your belief of what happened.
You stated your belief that you were saved before your sins are washed believe you were saved before your sins were washed away. do you believe a person to save them before their sins are washed away?
Is there an operation at work aside from what's written in scripture?
Can you explain how this all works through scripture? From what
I'm seeing Acts 22:8-16 throws a serious monkey wrench into "just" believe and confess which Romans 10 doesn't say.
What am I not understanding?