One possible scribal error is saying Jehovah hates instead of hates Jehovah. The second gives the power to the person to do wrong against Jehovah. Is it not true that people do sin? The first gives the power to hate to God. Is it true that God can sin?
I think that where people make a mistake is to think that God ever even acknowledges the people who are unbelieving. Habakkuk 1:13 The Bible is for believers. Isn't it? If it is, then Proverbs 6:16 is a warning to believers. According to what we read, Proverbs 6:16 is a warning to unbelievers.
What makes more sense to YOU?
God saying, "stop hating me"
or
God saying, "make me stop hating them"?
I've read through your post many times but don't understand what you're trying to say.
If you're talking about hypothetical scribal errors, then I did already address why that would not change the text we have. Two main reasons:
1. Because of the decentralized manuscript creation process, we'd be able to detect if such an error had occurred throughout history by comparing far flung manuscripts from across geography and time.
2. Biblical context. If all of the Bible is saying one thing, but one verse says something different, and historical record shows that difference is an isolated variation, then we have good reason to believe it is an unintentional scribal error.
The truth is, we have no example of a scribal error producing a different understanding of some important issue, because in every case our understanding of those Biblical issues never hinges on a single verse.
A good example of this would be Mark 1:41.
There are very few examples in the manuscript record where a scribal error has produced a different meaning in a sentence, but this is one of them. Almost every manuscript we have says compassion. So we have good reason to believe angry is not the original reading, because "compassion" and "angry" are similar in the Greek.
However, even if it were, this is another example of why such a variant doesn't even change our understanding of important issues in the Bible - Whether or not Jesus was angry (Indignant as the NIV translates it), or had compassion, it doesn't alter our understanding of who Jesus was. Elsewhere we know He had great compassion. Elsewhere we know He exhibited righteous anger. Nothing about our understanding of Jesus's character hinges on this one verse. In fact, even if it were "angry", that has to be understood in the context of everything else written about Jesus which tells us that if Jesus were angry then there must have been a righteous reason for him to be so. So any interpretation of why He was angry would have to go through that lens.