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the ethiopian orthodox church regards it to be inspired Scripture.Because it is not the word of God.
If a bible book which is in our canon (and is therefore the Word of God) cites a book which is not in our canon, why is the book which is referenced not also in our canon?
Enoch, the seventh from Adam, prophesied about these men (Jude 1:14)
the ethiopian orthodox church regards it to be inspired Scripture.
If a bible book which is in our canon (and is therefore the Word of God) cites a book which is not in our canon, why is the book which is referenced not also in our canon?
Enoch, the seventh from Adam, prophesied about these men (Jude 1:14)
If a bible book which is in our canon (and is therefore the Word of God) cites a book which is not in our canon, why is the book which is referenced not also in our canon?
“Enoch, the seventh from Adam, prophesied about these men…” (Jude 1:14)
the ethiopian orthodox church regards it to be inspired Scripture.
well if someone was inspired by the almighty i am sure microsoft word , would be the media of the dayI'd go out on a limb and say everything was inspired by what I don't know but no divine being typed out a text in Microsoft word I'm sure of.
Before these non-canonical literature, there were no hell. Not once was hell ever use as a place of torment. .
I find it so frustrating that some speak with such authority on that about which they are so ignorant. See Son of Man.Also the reference to the Son of Man, a title frequently associated with Jesus, was actually coined in one of the books of Enoch.
It is not the "wrong" that concerns me, but the pretense. Pedantry should be based on firmer ground, and intellectual honesty demands that each of us make at least some minimal effort to know what we don't know.So I am wrong about this Jay.
ultraviolet said:Perhaps this is why Roman Catholicism left it out?
They would lose their "leverage" with the masses.
edited said:Before these non-canonical literature (meaning the canonical text), there were no hell. Not once was hell ever use as a place of torment in the Old Testament.
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Sorry, Ultraviolet, but I didn't complete my sentence. It should read as:
<br /><br /><br />
The following is new:<br /><br />
I should also add that Christians have identify <b>sheol</b> with their <b>hell</b>. This is not so in Judaism at that time (before the books of Enoch). Sheol referred to the netherworld, or world of the dead, where everyone went, regardless of being good or bad, or the social classes, eg. kings or slaves. There were no reward or punishment in sheol. There were no judgement. It was not place of joy or pain. At the end of life, everyone went there. Only god lived in heaven, possibly with his angels.<br /><br />
It was in Enoch that we see new change in belief in regarding to angels, fallen angels, final judgement and hell - a concept that would later flourish in Christian teaching and belief.
If a bible book which is in our canon (and is therefore the Word of God) cites a book which is not in our canon, why is the book which is referenced not also in our canon?
Enoch, the seventh from Adam, prophesied about these men (Jude 1:14)
Sorry, Ultraviolet, but I didn't complete my sentence. It should read as:
The following is new:
I should also add that Christians have identify sheol with their hell. This is not so in Judaism at that time (before the books of Enoch). Sheol referred to the netherworld, or world of the dead, where everyone went, regardless of being good or bad, or the social classes, eg. kings or slaves. There were no reward or punishment in sheol. There were no judgement. It was not place of joy or pain. At the end of life, everyone went there. Only god lived in heaven, possibly with his angels.
It was in Enoch that we see new change in belief in regarding to angels, fallen angels, final judgement and hell - a concept that would later flourish in Christian teaching and belief.