I haven't read much of this thread, but I didn't see where anyone mentioned that it might be that Trump's "loss" of a billion dollars in 1995 was not really his loss but he got to claim it because the bank(s) that primarily financed the project(s) that went belly-up merely wrote off their own loss. This was a loophole for real estate developers at the time, and this law has been changed.
I just heard an interview with one of the bankers on NPR.
(Listening to a whole lotta radio these days as I prep my Mr Van for a trip next week.)
His bank survived.
How?
Instead of forcing Trump into very public foreclosure, they cooperated with him so he'd appear financially healthy.
This benefited both the banks & the city.
They also broached an issue I'd avoided because I thought it a bit arcane.
But now it's out there....
The 'expert' said that if Trump personally claimed the loss, then this would
mean he had no fiduciary responsibility to any partners or investors.
As is common these days, this 'expert' cherry picked a partisan oriented
scenario, & failed to consider any wherein Trump might be correct.
Possibilities....
- He was a managing partner in a general (not limited) partnership.
- It was a solely personal loss, but he needed the financial benefit of the
tax deduction in order to handle commitments.
Neither the 'expert' nor I know the details.
But I find it irresponsible & perhaps dishonest to pontificate as though one does know.