james2ko
Well-Known Member
And more dishonesty. I don't care that it was made public. Anyone who has read what I've written will clearly see that I don't support your point of view. But I do acknowledge that a Christian such as yourself can make a good point from time to time.
Relooking over that post, I'm assuming I probably just read the first sentence or so, which makes it look as if you were saying that the Jewish law is not a curse. If that is what you are saying, then yes, that is a good point. If I misunderstood you, then no, its a horrible point. Either way, it doesn't matter.
Feel better? Now that you got that off your chest. Let's get back to business.
Maybe you want to go back and see why I stated what I did. The content in question is some which you have refused to address because you stated "no he didn't, oh yes he did," type of point. This is what I was referring to:
Here is the post in question:
Isaiah 7:14 has nothing to do with Jesus or the Messiah. It dealt with a prophecy concerning that time period, not the future. Reading the rest of the following verses really shows this. As for Isaiah 9:6, again, can't be Jesus. Jesus never reigned on the throne of David, which verse 7 goes on to state. Neither have to do with Jesus. Which becomes exceptionally clear when they are read in context. Jesus wasn't buried like a criminal. He might have died as a criminal, but being put into a rich man's grave is not how a criminal was buried.It also clearly indicates that he did sin. Thus, one of the two have to be incorrect.
Does it ring a bell? Jesus' sinless state was one of the points addressed earlier in the thread.
Twisting the evidence is not a way to in anything. It is simply dishonest.
It is the preferred method of atheists/agnostics. Not Christians.
Finally, I'm point to scripture. You can try to run around it as much as you want, but until you actually address it, there is no reason to deny that the scripture I pointed out shows that Jesus sinned. And again, the fact that the Bible also says something else only supports another point I've made; that the Bible contradicts itself.
Running around? I refuted your sinful Jesus fallacy earlier in the thread and put it to rest. Yet you continue to bring it up. Did I say something to stir your conscience?
Show me the contradiction. Attacking me will not make your position any stronger. Not understanding me; and I think that you're doing so on purpose, does not make your position any stronger. As have I. Yet, instead of actually really addressing the subject, you just repeated yourself again.
I'm repeating myself because you keep asking me to...lol...I'll spare you this time ok..
As for discussing the other post, I see no reason to. You won't even enter into an honest discussion here.
I'm not letting you off the hook that easy. Since you claim I've been sidetracking, I'll get back on track and discuss the verse in question: What is the "curse of the law"?
Galatians 3:13 Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us, for it is written: "Cursed is everyone who is hung on a tree."
All the laws are called commandments. There are countless other Jews before and after Jesus who referred to the Laws as commandments. The Bible refers to the Laws as commandments. So really, all you're showing is that you are either purposely misunderstanding the Bible, or you're truly ignorant of what the Bible says. Neither one helps your position. Again, Jesus is referring to all of the commandments, to all of the Laws.
The 600+ laws fell into 3 major categories. Moral, Civil, and ceremonial. Many of them overlapped. While the Jews probably thought of all of them as a package, all coming from God, they likely made certain mental distinctions.
For example, the 10 commandments, unlike the other laws, were directly spoken by God and placed in the ark of the convenant setting them apart as especially important. The civil laws, statutes, and judgments were all based on the moral law providing further clarification.
The ceremonial law also stemmed from the moral law in that it was only needed because the moral law was broken. The context will determined which law or commandment is being addressed. The context in Mat 5, is undeniably referring to the 10 commandments--The Moral Law.
Just read Romans. Chapter 8 is a good place to start. Even Chapter 7 begins to identify a distinction of having to follow the law, and not. I'm not going to take some verses out of context as you have. Because in this case, it is dishonest, and does not portray what Paul is saying.
So if you feel I'm taking Rom 7:12-13 out of context, you must obviously have the correct context. Please share your interpretation.
Rom 7:12-13 Therefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy and just and good. 13 Has then what is good become death to me? Certainly not! But sin, that it might appear sin, was producing death in me through what is good, so that sin through the commandment might become exceedingly sinful.
On another note, If you haven't noticed, I have yet to reply to poisonshady or blacknights post on the OT messiah. I've been saving it for our one on one. You ready?
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