A. We also don't sentence children to eternal damnation.
This is certainly a long enough post. When I was in the military there was an old saying that stated: to defend everything is to actually defend nothing. In this context it would be to condemn everything is to condemn nothing. 10% of this post was not in response to my claims but I will comment on them anyway.
Your statement appears to condemn God because he holds a view regarding ultimate justice. As such it makes no sense and does require argumentation. I guess you regard anarchy and a lack of accountability as a virtue.
B. If a parent abuses or neglects a child by not filling their needs, they will get arrested (hopefully).
1. Crist suffered and died to meet our needs in accordance with God's wishes.
2. Human parents supply far less.
3. We do not have anything we might offer God to make up for our own disobedience.
4. God did not remain aloof from our sin, our need to unite with him, but entered into our need and suffering at great cost in the greatest example of selfless love in human history.
For this you condemn him, I do not get it. The only explanation is the moral bankruptcy attributed in the bible to unbelievers. Reject unconditional love at your own peril.
Scripture says Jesus died for our sins. History says he died because the Romans executed him like they did everyone else who got on their nerves. [/quote] History says both and both require approx. equal amounts of faith. On what basis do you deny one while condemning the other? Let me give you a few (among many) historical claims made by the bible affirmed by NT historians regardless of which side their on.
1. Jesus appeared in history with an unprecedented sense of divine authority.
2. That he practiced a ministry of exorcism and miracle working.
3. That he died by crucifixion inflicted by the Romans on instigation of the Hebrew priestly orders.
4. That even his enemies claimed to speak to him after death.
Bonus: That his apostles had no other possible motivation to record their conclusions beyond their sincerely believing them and (there being no other human being in history to know their validity).
These affirmations are equally able to justify faith in both conclusions I have made. I am consistent and grant both, you are inconsistent and grant one while denying the other based on the same facts. I also have personal experience which grants the spiritual conclusion.
Personally, I found the Mahabharata to be more morally consistent. It has WAAAAAAY less "do this because I told you so even if it's hypocritical".
In what other way can moral edicts be delivered from a morally perfect being to a morally corrupt species?
You're arguing that the Truth is based on book sales? So for all the centuries where it was jealously guarded by the church, it was false because there were fewer copies?
Since nothing I have ever said in 12,000 posts even contains the words "book sales" this argumentation is invalid.
So they said. If I write a story where I am tracking an ancient historical figure, does that story become true because I say I witnessed it?
I did not make a claim concerning known facts but made claims concerning the sufficiency of evidence which is actually identical to any claim ever made about anything. Nothing is certain except the fact I think. Virtually all claims (especially historical and legal) are based in probability which eyewitness accounts are the greatest for of evidence. IOW it is rationally (intellectually justifiable) to believe in historical claims based on good testimony.
So God loves to be irrational?
You can't even start yelling this until you show your ability to judge the ration for the irrational and then show that my claim about God was irrational.
You are an extremely limited, non-Omnipotent, extremely limited, and sinful (calm down we are all sinful) human being, yet you are suggesting He DOES reconcile man to Himself using the blood of His son?
The authors of the bible are extremely limited, non-Omnipotent, extremely limited, and sinful (calm down we are all sinful ... per the authors, anyway, despite evidence not all are unrighteous, even IN the bible), yet they are suggesting He DOES reconcile man to Himself using the blood of His son despite there seeming to be no real need for it in either Testament?
There most certainly is inexhaustible evidence in the OT. Just to give an example, the blood of goats and rams are said to be necessary to push the sin debt of Israel forward but are also said to be incapable to erase sin's debt in general. For that it is said the blood of animals can never do but only the blood of the lamb of God. The OT is full of shadows to NT literals. The lambs blood over the door saved them from a single nights judgment but only the NT true lamb of God saves us all from the eternal second death in the NT. The same way the OT blood of symbolic lambs pushed the sin debt forward until the NT literal lamb of God cancelled sin's debt forever. Also the OT story about Abraham being stopped from sacrificing his son to God providing the symbolic Ram to push forward sin's debt until the NT true sheep of God could erase the debt eternally.
Who said? And define "perfect".
Without moral fault.
Jesus: Be perfect, as God is perfect.
Scriptures are taken in context by the honest and stripped of context by those with agendas. In context perfection is a goal not a destination. Even if you reject context you have just made an argument against your world view. However Jesus does make us legally perfect by substitutionary atonement. My sin is exchanged for Christ's perfection in Christianity. So lacking my own perfection I am granted legal perfection before God by taking by faith the events on the cross. Biblically my righteousness is represented by a filthy garment which is exchanged for a white robe upon my acceptance of God's sacrifice. If you stop reading into the bible your own corruptions and take what the bible states the biblical salvation is the most elegant, appropriate, and comprehensive theory ever devised. Your own view is completely irrational. On your view salvation is based on my merits and is basis for boasting which Christ condemned.
Strange, Jesus seemed to think you have the power to shine your own light...
Light, nor what you claimed above does not appear in anything I said so I can a-priori reject you misplaced argumentation.
If God forced Jesus to commit suicide by cop, it is not self-sacrifice. Even before Jesus, as animals were being used as sacrifices, it's not like the animals just jumped up on the altar and sliced their own throats.
I did not say anything about God being forced into anything, in fact I says the polar opposite so again I reject this claim out of hand.
Sacrifices stay dead. That's why it's a sacrifice. Chilling for 3 days before getting back up doesn't constitute sacrifice.
On what basis do you arrogantly claim to define God's own terms. Quit arguing from false exegesis.
All Hindu derived salvation modules require man to save himself through quasi-gnostic enlightenment and do not contain a completely passive faith based models.
Do not say to yourself, ,"Do not say to yourself I am saved" for I tell you, God can make believers out of rocks.
What you said does not exist in the bible which is why you did not supply a link to it, however it's compete opposite does:
For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith--and this is not from yourselves, it is the gift of God-- Ephesians 2:8 .
We do not earn gifts. The single scripture in context completely refutes every claim you have made. This is getting simply sad. I will break here and quote the rest of your post in a separate response below.