SkepticThinker
Veteran Member
I'm sitting here trying to figure out what this has to do with anything I said or posed to you.There are 613 OT laws. How many laws are there in the USA? How many hundreds of thousands of specific laws? There are 613 specific laws in the Bible--most of which point to the Christ, and principles, from which it is known (check Talmud, Jewish history and tradition) that even Gentile slaves had rights before local elders and Israel's judges.
I disagree with you, but know you're coming from a sincere place.
The Bible does contain absolute morality--and that's why we disagree. For example, I see how capital punishment is moral, or outlawing abortions not threatening the life of the mother.
I understand Bible slavery in its historic and biblical context. For example, here are some good statements I found online:
The specific case of slavery is more complex than first appears...there is no monolithic 'institution' of slavery in the bible--e.g. the OT has SEVERAL models of what might be called 'slavery' and much of what passed as slavery in the ANE is no longer considered such in socio-economic understandings of the period and area. In the NT case, the problem is hugely complicated by the SEEMING position that ALL socio-economic institutions are 'neutral'; that they can be either used wonderfully or abused woefully...for example, i am called to be a 'slave to Christ'...and to obey (within conscience and stewardship) the demands of oppressive governments...this area of cultural forms is notoriously difficult (in my opinion)
"New World slavery was a unique conjuntion of features. Its use of slaves was strikingly specialized as unfree labor-producing commodities, such as cotton and sugar, for a world market." and Britannica: "By 1850 nearly two-thirds of the plantation slaves were engaged in the production of cotton...the South was totally transformed by the presences of slavery. Slavery generated profits comparable to those from other investments and was only ended as a consequence of the War Between the States." (s.v. "Slavery") In the ANE (and OT), this was NOT the case. The dominant (statistically) motivation was economic relief of poverty (i.e., 'slavery' was initiated by the slave--NOT by the owner--and the primary uses were purely domestic (except in cases of State slavery, where individuals were used for building projects).
Source: http://christianthinktank.com/qnoslave.html
Thanks for recognizing that I come from a place of sincerity though.