Unguru
I am a Sikh nice to meet you
A. If Allah spoke to Muhammad in 600 AD,
B. then he referred to the Bible as we have it today.
B does not follow from A, especially if you consider the concept of Revelation to Prophets to be true and valid. If you do consider it valid, then how-in-gods-green-earth can you support the Bible when it is by-default in contradiction of this notion of Revelation?
You are wrong to even try to tell me that somehow the Gospel and Torah is not, in the viewpoint of the Quran, the revelations of Allah!
Which Gospel?
God's
Thomas'
Marks'
Luke's
John's
Peter's
Judas'
Barnabas'
Marcion's
James'
Mary's
The Ebionites'
The Hebrews'
The Nazarenes'
Apelles'
Nicodemus'
Bartholomew's
Phillips'
????
Again, an answer would be appreciated.
And again, do you mean Oral Torah (Talmud) when you say "Torah"?
Remember, because you forgot, Allah clearly say NO ONE CAN CHANGE HIS REVELATIONS!
If this is true, then if we look at your position with the Bible then there should be no Prophets after Adam (no Abraham, no Jacob, no Moses, No Jesus etc). Adam is the only Prophet but what happened to Adam's book?
Every Prophet after Adam are false-prophets!
I call this, Christian check mate!!!!!