There is no such thing. There is just the field of history, they have the same standards of evidence for everything and everyone.
If a Christian can get something passed because it met standards of evidence it would.
A "Christian panel" is not qualified to review a PhD historical paper because you have to be a Biblical PhD historian to peer-review it. ALL OF THE SCHOLARS. BECAME SECULAR. I have given you multiple, long, emotional stories, given by actual scholars. None of them remained religious. Ehrmans is in print, Miller, Kipp Davis and others are in interview.
That is the problem of the religion and it's complete lack of evidence. Not the scholars.
If a "Christian panel" accepted claims of miracles and resurrections they would also have to accept the revelations from the Quran, Mormonism, Bahai, you either have good standards or you don't. "Your definition" is anecdotal non-evidence that Islam can also use and isn't empirical evidence by any standard. You are special pleading.
So, let's look at some scholarship by believing Christians, who are serious about standards of evidence. They agree the gospels are anon, non-eyewitness, using Greek material, because they cannot ignore evidence and cannot introduce anecdotal apologetics.
Guess what, you cannot make any myth pass a critical review, not Mormonism, not Islam, not Scientology.
Would a panel of Islamic fundamentalists pass a paper supporting the revelations of the Quran? YES. Do we care? NO BECAUSE THEY ARE NOT PhD HISTORICAL SCHOLARS who use the same standards of evidence as everyone else. No exceptions. Islamic fundamentalist panels already believe claims. Critical-historical scholars DO NOT. There are no respected scholarly publications who do peer-review who are passing the Qurans evidence. Same for Christianity.
Scholars care about one standard, do you have good reasonable evidence. You do not. Or everyone would be Christian. Islam does not, Mormons do not, you have vague claims, typical of the period, nothing unusual, just a Jewish version.
Would you be upset if historians said "we say the Quran has so much good evidence and miracles, we suggest it become the new world religion and all others be outlawed:" Well they don't have good evidence, so that cannot happen. But you don't either. Deal.
Christian scholars stay away from Persian/Greek history and many topics but they do study the Synoptic Problem and once the Greek stuff was mentioned in an apologetic work. Nowdays, it's ignored.
Oxford Annotated Bible (a compilation of multiple scholars summarizing dominant scholarly trends for the last 150 years) states (p. 1744):
Neither the evangelists nor their first readers engaged in historical analysis. Their aim was to confirm Christian faith (
Lk. 1.4;
Jn. 20.31). Scholars generally agree that the Gospels were written forty to sixty years after the death of Jesus. They thus do not present eyewitness or contemporary accounts of Jesus’ life and teachings.
Encyclopaedia Biblica : a critical dictionary of the literary, political, and religious history, the archaeology, geography, and natural history of the Bible
by
Cheyne, T. K. (Thomas Kelly), 1841-1915;
Black, J. Sutherland (John Sutherland), 1846-1923
"We feel that we have moved more out of a Hebrew into a Greek atmosphere
in the Pastoral Kpistles, in Hebrews— which is beyond doubt dependent both in form and in contents on the Alexandrians (e.g. , 131814) — and in the Catholic Epistles ; the Epistle of James, even if, with Spitta, we should class it with the Jewish writings, must have had for its author a man with a Greek education. Tt was a born Greek that wrote Acts. If his Hellenic character does not find very marked expression it is merely due to the nature of his work ; no pure Jew would have uttered the almost pantheistic -sounding sentence, ' in God we live and move and have our being' (1723). In the Fourth Gospel, finally, the influence of Greek philosophy is incontestable. Not only is the Logos, which plays so important a part in the prologue (Ii-i8), of Greek origin ; the gnosticising tendency of John, his enthusiasm for ' the truth ' (svithout genitive), his dualism (God and the world almost treated as absolute antithesis), his predilection for abstractions, compel us to regard the author, Jew by birth as he certainly was, as strongly under the influence of Hellenic ideas. Here again, however, we must leave open the possibility that these Greek elements reached him through the Jewish Alexandrian philosophy ; just as little can his Logos theory have originated independently of Philo, as the figure of the Paraclete in chaps. 14-16 (see J. ReVille, La doctrine du Logos dans le quatrieme Evangile,. Paris, '81). Cp JOHN [SON OK ZKBEDEE], § 31."
We must conclude with the following guarded thesis. There is in the circle of ideas in the NT, in addition to what is new, and what is taken over from Judaism, much that is Greek ; but whether this is adopted directly from the Greek or borrowed from the Alexandrians, who indeed aimed at a complete fusion of Hellenism and Judaism, is, in the most important cases, not to be determined ; and primitive Christianity as a whole stands considerably nearer to the Hebrew world than to the Greek."
Modern Christians who try to deal with Greek syncretism use strawmen and go after Horus and Mithras, both not Hellenistic demigods. They ignore the other 95% of Hellenistic borrowings.
When Mike Licona debated Carrier, every time Carrier presented historical consensus Licona was like "well we will just agree to disagree and move on". Pointless. He had no evidence, just his feelings.
bible.org, a scholarly resource for believing Christians who take academia seriously. A small excerpt on evidence of how we know the other Gospels copied from Mark. This is a small part of a long paper on evidence.
Any serious discussion of the Synoptic Gospels must, sooner or later, involve a discussion of the literary interrelationships among Matthew, Mark, and Luke. This is essential in order to see how an author used his sources (both for reliability’s sake as well as for redactional criticism), as...
bible.org
Any serious discussion of the Synoptic Gospels must, sooner or later, involve a discussion of the literary interrelationships among Matthew, Mark, and Luke. This is essential in order to see how an author used his sources (both for reliability’s sake as well as for redactional criticism), as well as when he wrote.
Robert H. Stein’s (a believer)
The Synoptic Problem: An Introduction1 summarizes well the issues involved in the synoptic problem—as well as its probable solution. For the most part, our discussion will follow his outline.
A. The Literary Interdependence of the Synoptic Gospels
It is quite impossible to hold that the three synoptic gospels were completely independent from each other. In the least, they had to have shared a common oral tradition. But the vast bulk of NT scholars today would argue for much more than that.
3 There are four crucial arguments which virtually prove literary interdependence.
1. AGREEMENT IN WORDING
The remarkable verbal agreement between the gospels suggests some kind of interdependence. It is popular today among laymen to think in terms of independence—and to suggest either that the writers simply recorded what happened and therefore agree, or that they were guided by the Holy Spirit into writing the same things. This explanation falls short on several fronts.
5. CONCLUSION
Stein has summarized ably what one should conclude from these four areas of investigation:
We shall see later that before the Gospels were written there did exist a period in which the gospel materials were passed on orally, and it is clear that this oral tradition influenced not only the first of our synoptic Gospels but the subsequent ones as well. As an explanation for the general agreement between Matthew-Mark-Luke, however, such an explanation is quite inadequate. There are several reasons for this. For one the exactness of the wording between the synoptic Gospels is better explained by the use of written sources than oral ones. Second, the parenthetical comments that these Gospels have in common are hardly explainable by means of oral tradition. This is especially true of
Matthew 24:15 and
Mark 13:14, which addresses the
readers of these works! Third and most important, the extensive agreement in the memorization of the gospel traditions by both missionary preachers and laypeople is conceded by all, it is most doubtful that this involved the memorization of a whole gospel account in a specific order. Memorizing individual pericopes, parables, and sayings, and even small collections of such material, is one thing, but memorizing a whole Gospel of such material is something else. The large extensive agreement in order between the synoptic Gospels is best explained by the use of a common literary source. Finally, as has already been pointed out, whereas
Luke 1:2 does refer to an oral period in which the gospel materials were transmitted, Luke explicitly mentions his own investigation of written sources.
6
When one compares the synoptic parallels, some startling results are noticed. Of Mark’s 11,025 words, only 132 have no parallel in either Matthew or Luke. Percentage-wise, 97% of Mark’s Gospel is duplicated in Matthew; and 88% is found in Luke. On the other hand, less than 60% of Matthew is duplicated in Mark, and only 47% of Luke is found in Mark.
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