Did Jesus say he was God???

[Muffled]

Biblically speaking this is correct. The biblical Yeshua didn't see himself as "God" nor was it something he taught. His own cousin, John the baptist, was not under the impression the man he was baptizing was actually "God" in the flesh. He says out right that he (Yeshua) was sent by God to speak the word of God (be "God's" ambassador)...because "God" put his spirit upon Yeshua without measure.

Everything else in the thread as to the biblical Yeshua's supposed deity is just over exaggerated intepretations. Taking a quote here or there does not make the man into a god. Taking the text into contextual consideration clarifies he had a god and professed it explicitly and did worship, cry and plead for his life to that god.

Joh 14:1 Let not your heart be troubled: believe in God, believe also in me.

Again Jesus equates Himself with God belief in one is belief in the other as well.

 

[Muffled]

Indeed we should! Let altruism reign supreme in our historical knowledge and the politically soaked manipulations fall by the wayside.

EM

So shall we say that Copernicus never existed and never said the world was round and go back to a flat earth belief?

Who will choose what is altruistic and what is not. If there is no God my idea of altruism is as good as anyone elses. So for my view to predominate, I have to battle and manipulate people. Somehow it seems more logical to have God decide leaving us nothing to fight over.

I believe the question on this string boils down to believing what is written instead of believing what we wish about what is written.

 

[Twig pentagram]

Joh 14:1 Let not your heart be troubled: believe in God, believe also in me.

Again Jesus equates Himself with God belief in one is belief in the other as well.

This is not equating this is seperating. If it was equating he would've said, believe in me for I am God. Not believe in God and also believe in me.

 

[Muffled]

The author of the post fail to distinguish between the historical first century Ribi Yehoshua and the le-havdil (to differentiate) Christian Jzus .

Le-havdil, A logical analysis (found in the website netzarim.co.il (Netzarim.co.il is the website of the only legitimate Netzarim-group)) of all extant source documents and archeology proves that the historical Ribi Yehosuha from Nazareth and his talmidim (apprentice-students), called the Netzarim, taught and lived Torah all of their lives; and that Netzarim and Christianity were always antithetical.

The original words of the pro-Torah teacher Ribi Yehoshua were redacted by Roman Hellenists, and the redaction is found in the “gospels”. Jzus is described in the “gospels”, and le-havdil the teachings of the historical Torah-teacher Ribi Yehoshua from Nazareth are found in the reconstruction (using a logical and scientific methodology to create the reconstruction), Netzarim Hebrew Reconstruction of Hebrew Matityahu (NHM).

The historical Jew Ribi Yehoshua is not the same as the Christian Jzus. The historical Ribi Yehoshua was a human.

The Christian Jzus was not an historical person. Thus it “said” nothing. Hellenist redactors of the “gospels” attributed words to it.

The fact that Ribi Yehoshua was in good standing in the Jewish community all of his life implies he didn’t teach doctrines as the trinity nor that he was a le-havdil (to differentiate) “man-g*d”, since such a statement contradicts Torah.

Anders Branderud

I have seen no evidence supporting your previous statements. Perhaps you could provide quotes from sources and provide evidence to support the veracity of your sources. "My Rabbi says so" doesn't cut it with me.

 

[look3467]

Not forgetting the whole intent and purpose of the coming, the submitting, the conquering by reason of absolute love and the willingness to lay down His life in or to gain the whole world, is Jesus only as God.
Now make of it anything you want, but the sentence above can not be denied as written of Him, as only God is able to perform what Jesus did in human form.

If it were not so, than you or I could take some credit as to our worthiness to effect a change in something we had no say so in the first place, and that would be the fallen state of being.

Blessings, AJ

 

[URAVIP2ME]

Not forgetting the whole intent and purpose of the coming, the submitting, the conquering by reason of absolute love and the willingness to lay down His life in or to gain the whole world, is Jesus only as God.
Now make of it anything you want, but the sentence above can not be denied as written of Him, as only God is able to perform what Jesus did in human form.
If it were not so, than you or I could take some credit as to our worthiness to effect a change in something we had no say so in the first place, and that would be the fallen state of being.
Blessings, AJ

Since God can Not die, then it would be the willingness of his Son to lay down his life of his [not God's] own free will.
There are two [2] 'wills' mentioned at: Matt 26v39; Luke 22v42; John 5v30; 6v38. Jesus came to do the will of his Father not do his own will.

 

[fatima_bintu_islam]

I saw someone saying at the beginning of the thread that Jesus was 100% God and 100% Human, and here a very intense question strikes me very hard:


When Jesus peace be upon him, fulfill his human needs ( going to toilet) , where the divine part goes at that specific time??

 

[Luminous]

Odd, since Jesus is not historically shown to have said "let he without sin..." such was a later addition after 1000 CE and most compilations of the idol scriptures acknowledge that. we learn something new every day.

 

[look3467]

Since God can Not die, then it would be the willingness of his Son to lay down his life of his [not God's] own free will.
There are two [2] 'wills' mentioned at: Matt 26v39; Luke 22v42; John 5v30; 6v38. Jesus came to do the will of his Father not do his own will.

Jesus as God, being for the redemption of the soul of mankind died as a man, went to hell (Prison where the unregenerated souls were held) and as a man would of have been as they were, were it not for the Father forgiving Him.

Psa 16:10 For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.

Jesus as God had the power to resurrect Himself: Joh 10:18 No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.

The will of the Father is that Jesus should die, for then only could the redemption of mankind be accomplished by God only, as it had to be totally the Father's will, as was Jesus'.

If Jesus as God died for our sins in redemption for our souls, and only then could God redeem, (for no man can take that away from Him) then Jesus is our God and is God.

When we die, we shall see Jesus as God.

Blessings, AJ

 

[look3467]

I saw someone saying at the beginning of the thread that Jesus was 100% God and 100% Human, and here a very intense question strikes me very hard:


When Jesus peace be upon him, fulfill his human needs ( going to toilet) , where the divine part goes at that specific time??

Very good question.

You must understand that being human has no possibility of salvation without God.

So, God as a human paid the price for our redemption were only God could.

Now, as for Jesus' personal needs, yes they were human needs as yours and I are, the difference being is that in Jesus rested the full Godhead bodily for the sole purpose of fulfilling the letter of the law, where no man could but God Himself as a human.

God in Jesus, revealed His character to the world through the Jewish nation, as a Jewish God, but revealed His salvation to the world as God of the world in Jesus.

Isa 60:3 And the Gentiles shall come to thy light, and kings to the brightness of thy rising.

The nation of Israel had to reject Jesus as God in order for God, as God (Jesus) to reach out to the rest of the world.

It was "finished"! Done!!

Blessings, AJ

 

[look3467]

Odd, since Jesus is not historically shown to have said "let he without sin..." such was a later addition after 1000 CE and most compilations of the idol scriptures acknowledge that. we learn something new every day.

"let he without sin..." is an indication that only God is without sin, and unless God is as a human being, there would certainly still be not one.......... without sin.

So, if you happen to know of someone without sin, let him/she know that for sure, they can cast the first stone.

But, if you believe that only the creator is without sin, and that He, the one without sin could in effect become the sin of us all, nail it to the cross, ending the penalty of death placed on all of us,...... then yes, by all means, come Lord Jesus!


Blessings, AJ

 

[Breathe]

When Jesus peace be upon him, fulfill his human needs ( going to toilet) , where the divine part goes at that specific time??

You mean, you don't believe God is omnipresent? That people can hide in the bathroom and commit sins because God isn't there?

(Note I'm not Christian nor believe in Jesus as God. Well, any more God than anyone else)

 

[fatima_bintu_islam]

Very good question.

You must understand that being human has no possibility of salvation without God.

So, God as a human paid the price for our redemption were only God could.

Now, as for Jesus' personal needs, yes they were human needs as yours and I are, the difference being is that in Jesus rested the full Godhead bodily for the sole purpose of fulfilling the letter of the law, where no man could but God Himself as a human.

God in Jesus, revealed His character to the world through the Jewish nation, as a Jewish God, but revealed His salvation to the world as God of the world in Jesus.

Isa 60:3 And the Gentiles shall come to thy light, and kings to the brightness of thy rising.

The nation of Israel had to reject Jesus as God in order for God, as God (Jesus) to reach out to the rest of the world.

It was "finished"! Done!!

Blessings, AJ

Thanks for response look34. Well, I have to be honest with you ; I have a hard time understanding your answer, honestly.

My question was simple, and your answer was:

Now, as for Jesus' personal needs, yes they were human needs as yours and I are, the difference being is that in Jesus rested the full Godhead bodily for the sole purpose of fulfilling the letter of the law, where no man could but God Himself as a human.

I have to say, it stills didnt answer the question of where the divine part of him goes??

You explained the purpose of having God as human, but not where the divine part disappear when human needs are calling for rescue.

Can you answer the question directly and easily so I can understand, I have bit of ahrd time with all thechnical lexic used


Best regards, and thank you for taking time answering my question

 

[fatima_bintu_islam]

You mean, you don't believe God is omnipresent? That people can hide in the bathroom and commit sins because God isn't there?

(Note I'm not Christian nor believe in Jesus as God. Well, any more God than anyone else)

You understood me wrong

When we commit sins there isnt a divine part in us which do the same thing ( since we're one), and when we do fulfill our toilet needs , there isnt a divine part in us which is doing the same , it wouldnt be called a divine part in this case;

Hope its clear now

 

[URAVIP2ME]

Jesus as God, being for the redemption of the soul of mankind died as a man, went to hell (Prison where the unregenerated souls were held)
When we die, we shall see Jesus as God.
Blessings, AJ

The Biblical hell according to Scripture is the common grave of dead mankind.
What does Scripture say at: John 11vs11-14; Psalm 6v5; 13v3; 115v17; 146v4 and Ecclesiastes 9v5,10?

Hellfire [Gehenna] is a symbolic place of destruction.
Gehenna was a place where things were destroyed not kept burning forever.

When Jesus died, why didn't Jesus see Jesus as God?________

According to Scripture Jesus did Not resurrect himself.
God resurrected the unconscious dead Jesus.

Doesn't the heavenly resurrected Jesus according to Rev [2v18] still see himself as still the Son of God?_________

At Rev [3v12] doesn't Jesus still believe he has a God over him?________

 

[look3467]

You explained the purpose of having God as human, but not where the divine part disappear when human needs are calling for rescue.

Can you answer the question directly and easily so I can understand, I have bit of ahrd time with all thechnical lexic used


Best regards, and thank you for taking time answering my question

The purpose is a spiritual undertaking in human form.

The human form had no say in it's fallen state, since knowledge of good and evil made the human form a lesser god.

So, in order for God to restore the fallen vessels (Plural) He provided one vessel that took the fall for all the vessels.

Thus, in human form, as a man, Jesus had all the personal needs of the body, but at the time of His sacrifice, He was as God (Upper case G), for only God can take away sin.

Say........ it was you....... who offered to die for the world, could you alone have the power and the might to shake the foundation of the world and restore life to a dead soul, souls?

Unless you had the power of the all mighty God in you, you could have accomplished nothing.

Jesus had the full Godhead bodily to perform such a task.

Blessings, AJ

 

[look3467]

The Biblical hell according to Scripture is the common grave of dead mankind.>>>URAVIP2ME

Mankind in the flesh is one death.
The other death is spiritual separation.

All souls prior to Christ were held in a spiritual prison, for until Christ came, there was no redemption.

And that is the thought we want to address, the spiritual incarceration of the souls awaiting its deliverance.

God prepare one individual soul to be a ransom for many by sacrificing it to the death of eternal separation for the many.

Yet God did not leave His soul in that state ref:Isa 1:18 Come now, and let us reason together, saith the LORD: though your sins be as scarlet, they shall be as white as snow; though they be red like crimson, they shall be as wool.

Jesus, being the curse of the whole world in one body, was willing to give up life for the world.

Mar 8:36 For what shall it profit a man, if he shall gain the whole world, and lose his own soul?

Jesus was willing to loose His own soul for the world, that the world through Him might be saved.

Yet God, did not allow it to remain, for God forgave Jesus as Isa 1:18 states.

And because the Father favored Jesus, Jesus gained us to life by rendering Gods righteousness to the world.

When Jesus died, why didn't Jesus see Jesus as God?________

Even till the very last breath, Jesus did not see Himself as God for Jesus had not descended to the prison where there was no life; and even until the second day, did He see Himself as God, for there on the third day, Jesus received His kingdom as God.

Hos 6:2 After two days will he revive us: in the third day he will raise us up, and we shall live in his sight.

Psa 82:8 Arise, O God, judge the earth: for thou shalt inherit all nations.

God as creator need not arise or even inherit, for all is His in the first place.

But Jesus did arise and He did inherit all nations as God.

Mar 12:36 For David himself said by the Holy Ghost, The LORD said to my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool.

Heb 12:2 Looking unto Jesus the author and finisher of our faith; who for the joy that was set before him endured the cross, despising the shame, and is set down at the right hand of the throne of God.

According to Scripture Jesus did Not resurrect himself.
God resurrected the unconscious dead Jesus.

True to both!

Doesn't the heavenly resurrected Jesus according to Rev [2v18] still see himself as still the Son of God?_________

At Rev [3v12] doesn't Jesus still believe he has a God over him?________

You see, the book of Revelation is about the travail of Jesus in conquering the world for God, thus it is seen as completed upon the resurrection of Jesus when the 24 Elder cast their crowns to the feet of Jesus, as Jesus now reigns supreme.

Would like for you to take note of the following verses pertaining to a similitude of Jesus:

Job 1:1 There was a man (Jesus) in the land of Uz (world), whose name was Job (similitude of Jesus); and that man was perfect and upright, and one that feared God, and eschewed evil.


Jesus is God, for God has delivered His creation back unto Himself in Jesus.

Blessings, AJ

Isa 42:19 Who is blind, but my servant? or deaf, as my messenger that I sent? who is blind as he that is perfect, and blind as the LORD'S servant?

Jesus as a man knew only that which the Father gave Him to know and understand, and to hear only what the Father said, thus Jesus was both deaf and blind for the purpose of completing His mission.

Had Jesus the whole knowledge of the Father, Jesus would have not asked, "Why has thou forsaken me and Father forgive them for they know not what they do" are not say, "you are of your Father the devil".

 

[fatima_bintu_islam]

Thus, in human form, as a man, Jesus had all the personal needs of the body, but at the time of His sacrifice, He was as God (Upper case G), for only God can take away sin.

Say........ it was you....... who offered to die for the world, could you alone have the power and the might to shake the foundation of the world and restore life to a dead soul, souls?

Unless you had the power of the all mighty God in you, you could have accomplished nothing.

Jesus had the full Godhead bodily to perform such a task.

Thank you very much for the answer, even though it still didnt answer my original Q which was:
Where the divine part goes when Jesus performed his human needs?

We will make a deal , Ill be patient waiting for a direct response, and on the other side you'll be more patient than myself answering the tons of questions I have to ask about this issue , deal?

If you just said "deal" behind your screen, then we shall begin ( Gather your patience please )

Lets say it was me who had to die for the universe, would God wants to come into my body??
Well, I have to say that as a human Im not always clean ( especially when I go to WC, or have my menses), so would God really accept to come into my body?

Can't God do what he wants without passing through a dirty body? Doesnt it mean that he is not powerful?

Can't God take away sin without having to die?

If Jesus died? Doesnt it mean God is dead? WHo are we supposed to worship??

If jesus took away all our sins, doesnt it mean that if Im a follower of Jesus I can kill and steal?
If I'm not able to do so, then what the benefit of Him dying for me?

If it was me who offered to die for the world, why God wouldnt just give me that power ( as He can do whatever He wants) of resurrecting souls without coming into my body?

Isnt it bit of unjust that one person die for all the rest ? Then whats the purpose of life after him??


Thank you very much for your time, I appreciate it

 

[Muffled]

I saw someone saying at the beginning of the thread that Jesus was 100% God and 100% Human, and here a very intense question strikes me very hard:


When Jesus peace be upon him, fulfill his human needs ( going to toilet) , where the divine part goes at that specific time??

The spirit is melded with the body. It goes where the body goes. However this is relative since God is everywhere anyway. It is however an interesting question to consider the God who is everywhere being mobile. I suspect that it is only incarnation that makes this feasible. It becomes almost as great a mystery as to how God can be everywhere.

 

[Muffled]

Odd, since Jesus is not historically shown to have said "let he without sin..." such was a later addition after 1000 CE and most compilations of the idol scriptures acknowledge that. we learn something new every day.

I have John 8:7 saying this without any footnote saying that anything was in question.

What is your evidence since it is not acknowledged iin my scripture?