Once again, here's what the scripture says:
"...for as all die in Adam, so all will be make alive in Christ."
Since you imply that "all" means all for Adam, how can you imply that "all" doesn't mean "all" for Christ? Since the preceding verse says "For since death came through a human being, the resurrection of the dead has also come (note past tense -- as in "already happened") through a human being." The common thread is "through a human being." As far as I'm aware, we're all human beings. Therefore all human beings that were dead in Adam the human being, are made alive in Jesus the human being.
Yes ALL will be made alive in christ, but not ALL are in christ. Now if you cant get that
Just as all in adam died, in the same way all that ARE in christ shall be made alive.
1 John5:12He who has the Son has life; he who does not have the Son of God does not have life.
1 Tes 5:9
For God did not appoint us to suffer wrath but to receive salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ. 10He died for us so that, whether we are awake or asleep, we may live together with him.
God did not appoint his children for wrath, so...does that mean the wrath dissapears because all are in chirst? If the wrath of god is poured out on his children, it would be the same as pouring it out on christ himself. Obviously not all are in christ.
. 4But because of his great love for us, God, who is rich in mercy, 5made
us alive with Christ even when we were dead in transgressions--it is by grace you have been saved.
Did you see the 'us'? It does not say, made ALL alive in christ, because not all were in christ.
Ephesians 1:4
. 4For he chose us
in him before the creation of the world to be holy and blameless in his sight. In love 5he predestined us to be adopted as his sons through Jesus Christ, in accordance with his pleasure and will-- 6to the praise of his glorious grace, which he has freely given us in the One he loves.
Again, the scripture says 'us'. The letter was not addressed to the entire world.