Willamena said:
Neither is more rational than the other, provided that both are genuinely faith.
I disagree. And even though I'm not going to quote the rest of your post, I'm still going to address it in this spiel. I'm going to make this relevant to the God existing versus not existing question and I'll try my damnedest not to use too many analogies that clutter things up.
We know something exists because it manifests itself. It can be either conceptual or non-conceptual. What is God? Conceptual or non-conceptual? If God is conceptual, God is merely a product of the mind. It's merely a product of the mind because it has no manifestation.
Love is conceptual. But it manifests itself. We can easily see this demonstrated. Concepts of love vary from person to person. But we call the basic concept of an intimate relationship with another person love. God is not conceptual because the concept varies so much from person to person and not one concept has been shown to manifest itself.
So is God non-conceptual? Most people take non-conceptual to mean physical. But God probably isn't physical. If God was physical, we'd probably be able to detect God by now. Non-conceptional does not necessarily need to mean physical, though. There are some truths that are non-conceptional and non-physical.
For example, the statement A = A holds true whether or not there is anyone around to conceptualize it. Imagine a universe identical to ours except in the minor detail that there are no conscious minds to observe and conceptualize. A rock is still a rock. A tree is still a tree. That is a basic truth that does not rely on its being conceived.
So is God non-conceptional and non-physical? If that were so, did God create logical absolutes such as A = A? If God did create those logical absolutes that means that God is not subject to those logical absolutes.
This means God can equal not God. Recall in our logical world, A = A. Rock = rock. Tree = tree. If these don't apply to God, God can also be not God. If God is not God...then it goes without saying that God does not exist.
Even if there were some sort of logical fallacy I'm employing here that I cannot at this moment recognize, it doesn't change the fact that there is no manifestation of God. We call a table a table. There is a table and there is our concept of a table. They are two different things. If our concept of a table were to be erased, the table would still exist. Likewise, if God is non-conceptual, we can erase our concept of God and we can find God to still exist. But we don't.
The flip side of the coin is if God IS subject to logical absolutes like A = A (as in God always equals God), then those existed before God. If there was any point at which God existed and then the logical absolutes did not (i.e. God first, and the logical absolutes were created by God some time later) then as shown previously, it would be possible for God to equal not God and God would not exist. And so how can God be said to be creator of all existence when something exists before God?
But all this talk of non-conceptual, conceptual, and physical entities is only a side argument to the glaring fact there is no manifestation of God. And if there is, please demonstrate it.
Thus, Thief is holding a notion of God - a conceptual notion of God - that is not manifested. Thief is merely trying to bastardize physics and Einstein (rather poorly at that) into justification for his crap deductive reasoning that God MUST HAVE existed prior to everything being created because everything must have a creator (i.e. cause and effect).
So Thief has faith in this non-manifested (and therefore nonexistent) concept. Existence is the state of being. God is not because we can apply no manifestation to the label God that doesn't already have a label for it.
By this I mean those who try and get away with claiming "God is love." No it isn't. Love is love. All they've done is succeeded in sticking a new label on something we already have a label for.
So I put the question to you again and I'll add the details now.
I have faith God doesn't exist. I have no evidence, but my rationale is that there is no manifestation of God. Thief has faith God exists. He has no evidence, but his rationale is that something MUST HAVE created the universe because of cause and effect - a being that ends the infinite regression of "Well what the Hell created that, then!?" In reality, Thief is arguing from the logical fallacy of argument from ignorance: "I cannot conceive of any other way that the universe could have come into existence. Therefore, I KNOW God exists and created the universe."
Now which - again - is more rational?