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Disproving the Bible

outhouse

Atheistically
Every human is fallible. God's word in infallible.

Which god?

But the hard part you cannot prove or even attempt with credibility, is to show any connection to a specific deity to a single word in any religious text in any book ever written factually by mans hands.

You have faith and no evidence at all
 

outhouse

Atheistically
The Pharisees were a sect who loved people and constantly did good deeds

You need to study real history before debating things your obviously lacking knowledge in.

Your statement false. This group had competing sects and was not a single group that acted similar.

We know sects that acted like Zealots, and others were Hellenistic and in opposition to their own brothers.

Now we know they used Roman muscle to extort tithes from peasants, which amounted to them stealing from peasants and oppressing them further then the Romans did.

Paul himself shows that the 'New Testament' books are not at all the 'New Testament'

This is quite absurd bud, how could Paul be addressing the NT in any way when it did not exist in his day?
 

Brickjectivity

Veteran Member
Staff member
Premium Member
You need to study real history before debating things your obviously lacking knowledge in.

Your statement false. This group had competing sects and was not a single group that acted similar.

We know sects that acted like Zealots, and others were Hellenistic and in opposition to their own brothers.

Now we know they used Roman muscle to extort tithes from peasants, which amounted to them stealing from peasants and oppressing them further then the Romans did.
I meant to point that out. I think I did mention it in one of my replies unless I accidentally edited it out. Anyway good point.
This is quite absurd bud, how could Paul be addressing the NT in any way when it did not exist in his day?
He rules it out twice. He rules it out once when he makes that statement and a second time when he says "You yourselves are our letter, written on our hearts, known and read by everyone. You show that you are a letter from Christ, the result of our ministry, written not with ink but with the Spirit of the living God, not on tablets of stone but on tablets of human hearts." (2 Cor 3:2). The blood is the new testament (or covenant) in Christianity, and the Christians are themselves the seal of Paul and Barnabas apostleship. They do not claim any other derived justification of their authority, especially not from writings. How can the New Testament canon really be the 'New Testament' if the blood and the people are the actual New Testament? How can these letters be authoritative when Paul says "...able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life..." and when he says "Where is the wise? where is the scribe? where is the disputer of this world? hath not God made foolish the wisdom of this world?" (I Cor 1:20) If there is any canon of new Christian scriptures at the time he tramples on any claim to its having infallibility. He does not need to know about our modern canon to have denounced its infallibility in principle.
 

outhouse

Atheistically
He rules it out twice

No he factually did not as it did not exist in pauls time.

Your also taking Pauls communities quotes out of context, that is your biggest error.

How can these letters be authoritative

They are not authoritative.

Like all of the NT, Pauls community gives a single picture of many pictures that are all credible and important to Christian theology, despite differences.

You cannot use a literal interpretation of any text without understand the whole picture. Even then literal interpretations are tricky and not recommended for any novice.
 

SkepticThinker

Veteran Member
point 1. because the punishment for sin is death, then someone had to die for our sins. by having the only man with out sin be the one to die then that pays the price for every man's sin.
So the punishment for sin is death and the punishment for not committing any sin is being tortured to death?

Huh?
 

Brickjectivity

Veteran Member
Staff member
Premium Member
Low standards? Can you name a book of such high standards that everything in it is said in a single sentence?
That would be your burden since you hold that a book can be infallible, but the standard of infallibility should be first of all clear transmission of information. I recall it was Paul who writes "God is not the author of confusion" and "Everything we know about God can be seen in his creation." That should rule out the infallibility of any book that is confusing to read and the necessity of using a book to understand God. After that why is there any need for an infallible book?

Every human is fallible. God's word in infallible.
James 'The Just' writes "Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above, and cometh down from the Father of lights, with whom is no variableness, neither shadow of turning. Of his own will begat he us with the word of truth, that we should be a kind of firstfruits of his creatures." (KJV James 1:18) So each person is given birth specifically by the will of the Father, and that birth is good and perfect. I cannot give spiritual birth to you or you to me. That is beyond us. A person could baptize you in water but not in the 'Holy Spirit'. Infallible books are extra to any such process even if one exists. The Word does not need them and continues with or without them, just like the wind comes and goes or the glory moves regardless of where the tabernacle happens to be sitting. If it moves you must chase it with the tabernacle. Similarly its not the spirit that needs books but books that need the spirit. My pointing out truths to you in such a book does not generate the spirit of God in you, but anything you receive comes directly from God. That seems to be what James is saying here, and I tend to agree with him. I think that is Catholic doctrine, too.
It's only natural that there are figures of speech in sacred texts that were commonly used and understood by those writing and reading them in their time. In some cases, the meanings are still commonly known; in others, they are not, but this figure of speech is still in use. "Eyes" is correctly spelled. Is every word exclusively literal, having only one possible meaning, and is there only one way to to convey a thought? You know perfectly well what figurative or metaphorical language is.
I know that figurative and metaphorical language is a human device that attempts to say more than words can express, but Paul writes that the spirit within us makes prayers that cannot be expressed in words. Therefore they cannot be written in the Bible, either. Figures of speech can also hide the deficiency of words, so don't let them become walls. There just are not words for some things, and if there are not words for some things than no set of words can be completely infallible when it comes to the human condition, since they must always be deficient in some way.

The Shakers were mistaken about that and many other theological points. I guess we could say they were "blind" to the truth.
If they were only alive so that we could warn them to remove the splinters from their eyes, that they might see; except its not our place to do that. Well nobody is an expert on everything. Its indeed very sad, but I was only talking about the fact that they had no children due to this wording in this particular book.

No, I have not made any excuses. Haven't gone to extremes either, but have been thinking that about you.
I think my head is pretty deep up my own ***. Maybe it can come out only by prayer and fasting? (I am actually not serious about my head. Its a joke.)

I agree with Saint Paul of course, but the new testament he was talking about about was the new covenant of Christ. The actual books of what we call the New Testament had not all been written and compiled when he said that, so he couldn't have been talking about the bible.
True, but in my reply to Outhouse I pointed out that he ruled out infallible books.
Did Jesus say that Moses' law can not change or did he say that the law given to Moses can not change? The laws of men and the laws of God are not necessarily the same. And this is where I think we agree.
Its good to agree, even though sometimes its just because we don't understand each other.
Yes, very good. I like that.
Darn it. I thought I had you in my tweezers, but then you went and agreed.
 

Brickjectivity

Veteran Member
Staff member
Premium Member
No he factually did not as it did not exist in pauls time.

Your also taking Pauls communities quotes out of context, that is your biggest error.
The partial quotations are getting a little bit confusing, because there are two conversations going. You realize that I'm in a conversation with an unusual Catholic who insists, contrary to many Catholics, that the Bible is infallible? I am aware the Christian canon did not exist in Paul's time and that Paul may be several people, that there could be later edits to Pauline letters etc. Lots of things are up in the air about Paul's letters, and the Ebionites decried Paul as a heretic. There are a lot of things to keep track of.
 

SkepticThinker

Veteran Member
John 3:16
16. For God loved the world so much that he gave his only Son so that anyone who believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.
17. God did not send his Son into the world to condemn it, but to save it.


How can He do the salvation of our sins if Jesus will not be in the form of man? Now, if you will ask me why He should do this? The answer is still in John 3:16, Gos so loved the world (people-sinners).

God has a wonderful plan and that is to save the Jew and Gentiles (non-Jews) to be with Him forever in eternal life.

Thanks
Well then, instead of creating the earth and populating it with people who this god knows are all inevitably going to sin, why not just create heaven right from the start and fill it up with a bunch of souls who can live with him forever in eternal life? (If that's really all this god wants). Why waste all the time and resources creating the earth and letting it go on for billions of years?
 

SkepticThinker

Veteran Member
This is a very good point, but the key word is "human." Any and all fallibility is in human error and especially editing, not in the bible itself. Martin Luther removed entire books from the Old Testament that Jesus and the Apostles used and quoted from when he rewrote the bible to suit himself and reworded New Testament verses to support his own false theologies. Further heretical revisions have followed ever since. Even at best, most English-language bible versions deviate to some extent from the original texts and from the Latin Vulgate, which is still the definitive Christian Bible since the year 405. The most direct and accurate English translation of that is the Douay-Rheims Bible. It predates the King James version by a few years and like all Catholic bibles, it includes the deuterocanonical books that Martin Luther arrogantly rejected and Protestant bibles omit.
Does that not include the human error involved in reading and interpreting the Bible? Regardless of whether or not the Bible is infallible, human beings are fallible. And we're the only ones here to read and interpret the Bible. The fact that there are thousands of different sects of Christianity who all think they've got it right demonstrates that, I think. So where does that leave us?
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
all fallibility is in human error and especially editing, not in the bible itself.
Of course it is, because the bible is a product of humanity.
Even at best, most English-language bible versions deviate to some extent from the original texts and from the Latin Vulgate, which is still the definitive Christian Bible since the year 405.
Or the LXX, which predates it.
The most direct and accurate English translation of that is the Douay-Rheims Bible.
False. That translation does not take advantage of important scholarship that came later.
 

Neo Deist

Th.D. & D.Div. h.c.
Here I will submit points to try to disprove the infallibility of the Bible primarily used by Christianity and it's contents, and I would like to see if my points can be countered.

This, coming from the same guy that believes in "energy vampires" and that they actually walk among us. :rolleyes:

There is a much easier way to go about this...

1. The Bible was originally written as a loose collection of scrolls in the languages of Hebrew, Aramaic and Koine Greek. However, none of those original writings exist today (that we know of). Therefore, every source (or resource) that is available to us is a copy and can't be verified against an original work.

2. Everything written in the Bible was done so by human hands. No one is perfect and mistakes are to be expected. Some will make the claim of divine intervention and/or inspiration, but that is done to try and refute the idea that the Bible contains mistakes.

3. All of the Abrahamic religions rely on the interpretation of dreams/visions by its original prophets. In the case of the NT, much of it was written AFTER Jesus' death by anonymous authors.

4. Science has debunked numerous biblical stories. Only a blind fool would continue to believe some of the more outlandish of those stories.
 

Forever_Catholic

Active Member
If God is omnipotent does that not mean thet he allows evil to exist?
He allows evil to exist on earth, but only within limits. These limits become very obvious and easy to appreciate by souls in hell, where God is absent and evil is unrestrained. On the other hand, there is no evil whatever in heaven because nothing unclean can enter it.
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
The LXX Bible is the Septuagint, which was the bible (in Greek) that Jesus and the Apostles used, and which was preserved in Catholicism as the Old Testament, so yes, it's older, but it's still part of the Latin Vulgate Bible.

Like what?
Seriously??? You don't think there have been older manuscripts discovered and more advances made in scholarship since the 1500s???
 

gsa

Well-Known Member
The LXX Bible is the Septuagint, which was the bible (in Greek) that Jesus and the Apostles used, and which was preserved in Catholicism as the Old Testament, so yes, it's older, but it's still part of the Latin Vulgate Bible.

There's not much evidence that Jesus was able to read and write, or that he could read and write Greek. Certainly, if that was the case, he managed to fail to record his own message. So I have no idea how you would discern that Jesus used the Septuagint, apart from the much later narratives of the gospels relying on it (in an often humorous way that amuses Jews to no end).
 

Forever_Catholic

Active Member
Does that not include the human error involved in reading and interpreting the Bible?
Yes.
Regardless of whether or not the Bible is infallible, human beings are fallible.
Yep.
The fact that there are thousands of different sects of Christianity who all think they've got it right demonstrates that, I think. So where does that leave us?
There are somewhere between 40,000 and 50,000 Christian denominations, depending on how you count all the subdivisions. That leaves us with the one Church that the infallible Christ established among the many thousands of spin-offs established by fallible humans from around the year 1500 onward to this very day. They all claim to be right, but only one of them can be. So would it be the one that Jesus called "my Church," or would it be one of those that rejects it?
 

SpeaksForTheTrees

Well-Known Member
Here I will submit points to try to disprove the infallibility of the Bible primarily used by Christianity and it's contents, and I would like to see if my points can be countered.
Is a translation of a copy shouldn't be to difficult ) imho Christianity is as good as any other path to God.
 

Forever_Catholic

Active Member
Seriously??? You don't think there have been older manuscripts discovered and more advances made in scholarship since the 1500s???
I've never heard of any challenge to the validity of either the Latin Vulgate Bible or the Douay-Rheims translation. If there are such things, tell me about them.
 
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