If you find something definitive lets me know.
That's my point: the fact is that the Gospels have Jesus quoting and/or referring exclusively to the Prophets of Judaism:
---These are My words which I spoke to you while I was still with you, that all things which are written about Me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled." (Luke 24:44)
"Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to abolish but to fulfill. Matthew 5:17
"The Law and the Prophets were proclaimed until John; since that time the gospel of the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is forcing his way into it. Luke 16:16
(I've already explained that "The Law and The Prophets" designates two of the three subdivisions of the Jewish Tanakh. explained here:
Tanakh - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia)
In Matthew 24:15. He quotes Daniel (Daniel 9:27, 11:31)
In Matthew 12:39-40. He compares himself to Jonah
In Luke 4:17. and in other places he directly quotes Isaiah
All in all there are 24 instances in the Gospels where Jesus quotes the Tanakh.
In at least one place he recounts a story originated in the teachings of Hillel.
There are no instances where he quotes Socrates, or Plato, or any philosophical or religious figures---Greek or otherwise--- outside of Judaism. there are also no examples of his quoting or using material from any other religious texts with the possible exception of a few very definite similarities to portions of the canon of the Qumran sect (which was still Jewish).
What about Christianity and the Bible? You don't think there was any Greek influence there?
We aren't talking about Christianity and the Bible, we're talking about the religion that Jesus himself belonged to. There was no Bible and there was no Christianity in his lifetime.
If you're talking about the Old Testament, other than the language the Septuagent was written in, off-hand I can't think of anything in there that even
might have been influenced by Hellenism. Not saying it in't a possibility, but without any actual examples (even hypothetical ones) to look at how would anyone go about forming an opinion one way or another? Lacking that, the most obvious (and I think the only sensible) conclusion is that even if there actually were any Hellenistic influence in the formation of the later books of the Tanakh, they're probably inconsequential to the actual theology.
Fair enough, however that goes both ways.
Ok, were was it clarified in the gospels. I'll accept I'm a little dense, a little slow. Just point it out and we are done.
See above.
I'm not offended at all, I just didn't see where you made such a request.
So what do you want to know?
Here's a reference for you to read. Not necessarily authoritative but it provides references and so you know I'm not alone in my thinking.
Greeks & Romans – World Culture Confounds the Jews
Interesting. Thing is though, since the starting point of this conversation was the question "Did Jesus start a new religion", even if some part of the Jewish scriptures were influenced by Hellenism (although you have to take into account that the Jewish canon was already closed before Alexander arrived) the resulting religion would still have been centuries old by the time Jesus was born into it.
Even if (and I still think even an "if" is optimistic) 1st Cent. Judaism was some sort of Hellenized version of it's more ancient self, it was still the Judaism of Jesus' day, it was still his religion, and IMO it's pretty obvious that he was working within the framework of that religion. Rather than attempting to start a new religion, which is what the person I was originally responding to claimed, he seems to have been trying to do the exact opposite, ie., establish a reformation movement geared towards a return to the Judaism of the Prophetic Era.
Where have I refused to acknowledge it. I just don't agree with your conclusions about your evidence.
I don't see what you offered as disagreement, I see it as disregard.
Put it this way: If I say "2+2=5" and then show you the faulty math I used to come up with that, and you respond with, "no, 2+2=4" and show me your own math, or the errors in mine, that's disagreement. That, IMO, is the way debate is supposed to work.
On the other hand if you just say "No, I disagree" and then refuse to explain or demonstrate why, that isn't disagreement, or debate. That's just disregard.
Your post and apparent refusal to consider other possibilities are evidence of that.
No, I've considered the other "possibilities" and I explained why I think they don't work.
Again I'm not avoiding any evidence. I'm just not sure how or why you think any of this makes you think your conclusions are unquestionable.
I've answered every question you've asked so far, in as much detail as I could.
You're the one who seems bothered by questions.