rosends
Well-Known Member
So Hengel, writing about Christianity from a Christian perspective, without any explanation or backing (or cross checking with other Hebrew words or textual sources) says that a "possible translation" would be "I have anointed" (mashachti), in a form which appears no where else in the text. He also says that this would refer possibly to the "Priestly messiah of Qumranic eschatological expectation." He also has interesting things to say about the authorship of the Gospel of John, as he says that the author is John the Elder, " this great teacher to whom the church owes a good part of its foundation." and "It seeks to see the ‘history’ of Jesus better… and at the same time in a much deeper christological understanding." Does his scholarship shake your contention that "the Sanhedrin created the Gospel of John to be derogatory towards Yeshua"? Is Hengel an authority that challenges your understanding?Martin Hengel translates: "I have anointed his appearance beyond that of any (other) man, and his form beyond that of the sons of humanity [the human]".
It really doesn't make a big deal to the case, the word is anointed in someway; this is most likely where the 1st century Messianic understanding of Isaiah 53 came from.
This was a very minor detail of questioning, there isn't specification of 'the Messiah' as believed within Rabbinic thinking specified within the Tanakh, and almost agreed until found that reference.
Yet if we dissected the rest of the text, it would be clear why it is quite specific, with multiple references across the book.
So the reference that Hengel decides, with no textual backing, is there to point to one thing, you decide points to something else (which he would deny) and then you insist that reading the rest of the text, things would continue to point to the meaning you prefer. You have put the cart before the horse.