I appreciate your pursuit of claiming where I've failed to win a debate, for example, an ad populum claim from you is a way to say "In a debate, you've not proved X is a fact" .
That's not how logic works at all. If you violate a basic principle of logic, by using a known logical fallacy, then that claim or argument is irrational by definition. You clearly don't want to address that, but blaming me for pointing it out is silly. Secondly this is a debate forum, but it is not formal debate, there is no wining or losing, it is up to each person how much they want to contribute, and how much of what they read they want to honestly digest.
I'd love for you to answer some of my questions with an answer and not "you made this error of debating", for examples:
1) Name ANYTHING in the KNOWN UNIVERSE that 90% of people believe in error (that isn't God or magical thinking)?
2) Explain the Bible's prescience that the Jews would be persecuted in nations around the world, get back their land in a day and defeat all their enemies soundly for decades after?
3) Why do you not place appeals to numbers or ad populums in context (when most people agree on a fact they are very often correct because people are rational and not as irrational as you claim)?
I answer all you questions, you just either ignore my answers, or resort to ad hominem attacks. However here goes again then.
1. I have answered this repeatedly, the number of people that believe something tells us nothing about the validity of the belief, to claim otherwise is an ad populum fallacy. So it doesn't matter if this were the only example, it would still be an irrational bare appeal to numbers. It's clear you're unhappy with this answer, but since I am being honest I cannot answer it any other way.
2. Firstly I'd need to see more than the bare claim that is prescience, however even if it were a remarkable occurrence no one could explain, it would be irrational to then leap to an unevidenced explanation, and as I already explained that's because it would be an argumentum ad ignorantiam fallacy. There are 3 separate claims,
firstly that someone made a very accurate and unlikely prediction,
secondly that this prediction came true later exactly as described, and
thirdly that this involved a supernatural prophesy, of divine origin. Even could you demonstrate the first two as objective facts, it would still be irrational to claim they were objective evidence for the third.
3. An argumentum ad populum fallacy is
never rational, it cannot be by definition? You are conflating objectively evidenced facts believed by large numbers of people, with a
bare appeal to numbers. They are not the same thing, and I don't know how else to explain your error in reasoning here?