We were talking about what qualifies as the Veda. Mathematics, Astrology, Science, etc., are Veda in the sense of Veda = Knowledge. But in the common usage of the word, they are not Veda. In other words, Indian mathematics is not from one of the four Vedas.
Where do you think they got the zero from? Incase you are implying they copied it from India, they did not use a base 10 or binary system as in ancient India. They used a base 20 system and I am not aware of any other culture around the world using base 20.
I was not even mentioning Maths, Astrology, Sciences etc... I meant the Ultimate meaning of the Veda Vakyas that can be known through an enlightened Guru. To give you an example- a rose looks red flower through the eyes, smells good through the nose, appeas thorny to touch and tastes "rosy" too. All this is knowledge about a rose through different Indiriyas. Similarly, when the Vedas are known through the intellect, their meaning is different than when they are realized in the Atman with the grace of an enlightened Guru- THAT IS THE REAL VEDAS.
I could care less if the Mayans invented zero first or learned it first from the ancient India- in the end ALL is a big zero anyway. May be they knew about "two" and learned about zero from India and then came up with 20- who knows?
Regards,