What I suggest can be done right now. Just try proving anything from a translation, and see what happens.
What do you mean?
Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
What I suggest can be done right now. Just try proving anything from a translation, and see what happens.
Actually yes, in many places that matter. Many translations agree with much of what the Bible says. The differences, in many cases, are simply minor variations. However, scholarly commentary can and does help in understanding the Bible.Where there is no significant difference between translations, or where a difference is immaterial. But those are not the places that matter.
How do you know? You haven't a clue. You're in the hands of a man some call Hot Ehrman. Not a nice fate, some say.Many translations agree with much of what the Bible says.
Let's not change the subject!In many cases, the biggest disagreement is simply on interpretations of what a verse states.
Duh? Of course, if it is disputed, one won't prove anything even with the original language, so your point is moot. People interpret the Bible differently. Conservative scholars will interpret the original languages to fit their idea. Liberals will do the same. Or at least in many cases that is true. Again, that point is completely moot.It's been true from before you were born. Theologians never use anything but Gk and Heb between themselves. To do otherwise would be instant suicide.
Go on, try proving anything you like from a translation, anything that has been disputed. It won't even work here, let alone in the real world.
So you try to discredit a scholar that I use in order to prove me wrong? Doesn't work like that.How do you know? You haven't a clue. You're in the hands of a man some call Hot Ehrman. Not a nice fate, some say.
I wasn't changing the subject, I was addressing something you said. If you look through these forums, you will see that there are some members here who are quite well versed in Greek, Hebrew, Arabic, and the like. However, the original languages hardly come up unless it is to stress a point.Let's not change the subject!
Try it out, this notion of yours, and let's see how far you get.
Nonsense. Anyone who has been on the religious 'net for long knows that very well. Many an inane driveller has been driven out with just one Greek word.Duh? Of course, if it is disputed, one won't prove anything even with the original language
A major handicap. Without Heb, one cannot properly understand the NT. Though I don't think that Ehrman pays much attention to nuance in the NT anyway!One example, Bart D. Ehrman does not use the Hebrew.
Prove any disputed interpretation from a translation only. Or any undisputed one, for that matter.I don't even get what you're asking for, Kejos. Prove what, exactly?
A major handicap. Without Heb, one cannot properly understand the NT. Though I don't think that Ehrman pays much attention to nuance in the NT anyway!
Just Greek.The NT wasn't written in Hebrew. It was written in Aramaic and Greek.
With Aramaic.The OT was the Hebrew one.
The LXX. That's for demolition in another thread, surely.Even then, the Greek OT (the Septuagint) was compiled before the Masoretic text, which was in Hebrew, and is the standard Jewish Tanakh used today.
So why has it never occurred here, or for that fact, in any forum I've been in. More so, in the many discussions I've had with theologians, it has never came up either. That includes ministers of various denominations, as well as college level teachers. The most that has happened is one pointing out the Greek in a case that matters, and explaining what it means. For the most part, that usually doesn't change what is being said, it just strengthens a point.Nonsense. Anyone who has been on the religious 'net for long knows that very well. Many an inane driveller has been driven out with just one Greek word.
That makes very little sense at all. How does not understanding Hebrew mean one can not understand the NT? The fact is, the majority of NT scholars focus on the Greek, and know little Hebrew. The reason being that learning the Greek, and the historical context takes a lifetime. That is why they are NT scholars. The same is true in many cases for OT scholars as well.A major handicap. Without Heb, one cannot properly understand the NT. Though I don't think that Ehrman pays much attention to nuance in the NT anyway!
Prove any disputed interpretation from a translation only. Or any undisputed one, for that matter.
Just Greek.
With Aramaic.
The situation is this: homosexuals could achieve parity with heterosexuals in churches if they could prove that the Bible permits homosexuality. It so happens that there is an important test case under review right now, and the learned exposition in the thread referred to would resolve the situation beyond a peradventure. So the bishops and archbishops mentioned, who are sorely tried because of the pressure on one side from homosexuals, and on the other from Greek and Hebrew scholars, would be very grateful indeed if those scholars could be proved to be in error. It's a little surprising that action has not been taken already to provide them with this crucial information.
It is very possible, if not likely, that Jesus and the disciples conversed in Greek, the lingua franca of Galilee, the region where all of them hailed from, except Judas, who must have known Greek. Many ordinary people were multilingual, as they still are in many parts of the world, a fact that English-speakers today generally do not realise.Ah, thanks for the clarifications. Aramaic was likely the language of Jesus and his disciples
It is very possible, if not likely, that Jesus and the disciples conversed in Greek, the lingua franca of Galilee, the region where all of them hailed from, except Judas, who must have known Greek. Many ordinary people were multilingual, as they still are in many parts of the world, a fact that English-speakers today generally do not realise.
I'm sure it has. It will, sooner or later.So why has it never occurred here
Indeed it is.Right, they could have spoken both languages.
And it's Americans that don't quite realize it, since we're not taught other languages until we're too old. From what I hear, in Europe, learning other languages is part of growing up.
It is accepted that they spoke in Aramaic as it was the common language. If they knew Greek, it wouldn't have been very little. All of the evidence points that way.It is very possible, if not likely, that Jesus and the disciples conversed in Greek, the lingua franca of Galilee, the region where all of them hailed from, except Judas, who must have known Greek. Many ordinary people were multilingual, as they still are in many parts of the world, a fact that English-speakers today generally do not realise.
I'm sure it has. It will, sooner or later.