Does the Apostle Paul claim that Jesus Christ, the holy anointed man, is Almighty God?

[101G]

Maybe being united, or joined as a whole, is correct.
Either way, it does not show that the trinity is wrong.

GINOLJC, to all.
First thanks for your reply, second, yes its dose. did you understand the definition of a COMPOUND? Compound: 1. a thing that is composed of two or more separate elements; God is not separate, nor divided.

let 101G school you in the TRUTH so that you may KNOW.

understand, God who is the ECHAD of HINSELF is the EQUAL "SHARE" of his OWNSELF in an ordinal designation of First and Last, or respectively "Father", and "Son". let prove this out by the Scriptures,

Philippians 2:6 "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:"

the term, "FORM" of God, is Spirit, (John 4:24a). and it's the Greek word,
G3444 μορφή morphe (mor-fee') n.
1. form.
2. (intrinsically) fundamental nature.
[perhaps from the base of G3313 (through the idea of adjustment of parts)]
KJV: form
Root(s): G3313
See also: G3445, G3446, G4832

now the million dollar and two cent question, is this, "WHAT KIND OF NATURE THAT MAKE HIM "EQUAL WITH" GOD?". Notice "EQUAL WITH" and not "EQUAL TO"., hold that thought,

the Root of this word, (form), gives us the answer to his, the Lord Jesus, NATURE, and this root word is,
G3313 μέρος meros (me'-ros) n.
1. a portion (i.e. an amount allotted, a part of something).

ANOTHER WORD FOR, "PORTION" IS "SHARE". there is our answer. not a separate person, but the same one person "EQUALLY SHARED", and in this case, G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') in flesh as a man.

this is why your compound unity is in ERROR. understand, in Philippians 2:6b, it states, "to be equal with God:", and not EQUAL TO GOD. for if he, the Lord Jesus was equal "TO" God that would INDICATE a separate ;person. but by the verse stating, "equal "WITH" God, that indicate the same person., for no one is EQUAL "TO" God. listen and Learn, Isaiah 40:25 "To whom then will ye liken me, or shall I be equal? saith the Holy One." ME, and I are single person designation. one more to get a double witness. . Isaiah 46:5 "To whom will ye liken me, and make me equal, and compare me, that we may be like?". again ME is a single person. ok, one more, Isaiah 40:18 "To whom then will ye liken God? or what likeness will ye compare unto him?". the term God is used and the verse, and it said "him", so God is a SINGLE PERSON. but in the ECHAD he is the EQUAL share of his OWN-SELF, (ANOTHER just as G243 ALLOS STATES). notice, Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he."

The LORD/GOD is the First, and he is "WITH" the Last, and notice, "I AM, I AM once more, I AM ... HE".
I, and HE again are single person designation. Just like in John 1:1 the Word/Son, is "WITH" God/the Father in the beginning. see the "WITH" in John 1:1, as well as in Philippians 2:6, "EQUAL WITH" God. is the SAME one person.

now the revelation of "WITH" in the ECHAD of God. Listen, Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last." ALSO? yes, the SAME one Person. see, "WITH" in the Godhead is the same one person "EQUALLY SHARED". that's why the Greek term, G243 Allos, (as mentioned before), express the Hebrew ECHAD as a NUMERICAL Difference of Ordinal First and Ordinal Last, and not a compound Unity. listen, Deuteronomy 6:4 "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:" and the term ONE here,
H259 אֶחָד 'echad (ech-awd') adj.
1. (properly) united, i.e. one.
2. (as an ordinal) first.
[a numeral from H258]
KJV: a, alike, alone, altogether, and, any(-thing), apiece, a certain, (dai-)ly, each (one), + eleven, every, few, first, + highway, a man, once, one, only, other, some, together.
Root(s): H258

definition #1 is where you get your compound unity, but that's an ERROR, as we have proved by the Scriptures, that a unity consists of two or more which the scriptures clearly states that "GOD" is a single person. only definition #2. is the correct answer, because God is a ECHAD "WITH", his OWN-SELF as Ordinal First/FATHER, CREATOR, and MAKER of ALL THINGS. and Ordinal Last/SON,, REDEEMER, and SAVIOUR of all that he CREATED and MADE in the Beginning.

so, the compound unity is an ERROR.

the correct understanding of God is that he's the EQUAL SHARE of HIMSELF in Fesh. one can take this to the bank.

we suggest you copy this and study it for your edification. may the GOD of all CREATION give you understanding.

101G.

 

[Soapy]

This:
Though there are gods and lords aplenty, for us there is ONLY ONE GOD, who is Father, Son and Holy Spirit".
is what Christians 'hear'.

Your version--
Though there are Gods and Lords aplenty, for us there is ONLY ONE GOD.

Which Bible are you posting your verse from? I have never heard your interpretation before.

 

[Soapy]

did not YHWH come to earth as a man? yes,

Question, "is anyone God Equal?" yes or no. but before you answer, read Isaiah 40:25 first

101G

I do not have to read what you posted as a ’proof’ since I already know that there is no other but one God. And, there is but one Lord who is Christ.

God is not Christ. Christ is not God.

Jesus is the ‘Christ of God’.

God is from whom Christ gets his power, authority, wisdom, words, and deeds.

All things comes from God unto the Son. If the son receives all that he is from God then how can the son be God from whom he receives all that he is?

 

[101G]

God is not Christ. Christ is not God.

JESUS IS, and he is the Christ the Intrinsic Spatial of God manifested here in the earth realm.

God is from whom Christ gets his power, authority, wisdom, words, and deeds.

is not Christ the POWER of God and the WISDOM of God manifested in flesh as a man? again is he not the Intrinsic Spatial of God manifested in flesh?

All things comes from God unto the Son. If the son receives all that he is from God then how can the son be God from whom he receives all that he is?

let the bible tell you. Hebrews 1:8 "But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, (HERE THE SON IS CALLED GOD). is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom." Hebrews 1:9 "Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows." Hebrews 1:10 "And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands:"

#1. the Son is clearly called "GOD". #2. God even thy God, as you said there is one God, is the same one person in Ordinal Designation as GOD. #3. the Lord in the beginning laid the foundation of the EARTH, well you better read this. Zechariah 12:1 "The burden of the word of the LORD for Israel, saith the LORD, which stretcheth forth the heavens, and layeth the foundation of the earth, and formeth the spirit of man within him.". .

now Hebrews said the "Lord" laid the Foundation of the Earth. but Zechariah 12:1 said the "LORD" all cap laid the foundation of the earth. now either the bible lied, meaning God LIED, (God forbid), else the Lord, and the LORD is the same one person...... your choice.

I'll be looking for your answer.

101G.

 

[Trailblazer]

is not Christ the POWER of God and the WISDOM of God manifested in flesh as a man?

Yes, He is.

1 Timothy 3-16 God manifest in the flesh

KJV And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

However, a Manifestation of God is not God becoming flesh.
If God became flesh, that would be an incarnation.

“The Christian equivalent to the Bahá'í concept of Manifestation is the concept of incarnation. The word to incarnate means 'to embody in flesh or 'to assume, or exist in, a bodily (esp. a human) form (Oxford English Dictionary). From a Bahá'í point of view, the important question regarding the subject of incarnation is, what does Jesus incarnate? Bahá'ís can certainly say that Jesus incarnated Gods attributes, in the sense that in Jesus, Gods attributes were perfectly reflected and expressed.[4] The Bahá'í scriptures, however, reject the belief that the ineffable essence of the Divinity was ever perfectly and completely contained in a single human body, because the Bahá'í scriptures emphasize the omnipresence and transcendence of the essence of God…..

One can argue that Bahá'u'lláh is asserting that epistemologically the Manifestations are God, for they are the perfect embodiment of all we can know about God; but ontologically they are not God, for they are not identical with God's essence. Perhaps this is the meaning of the words attributed to Jesus in the gospel of John: 'If you had known me, you would have known my Father also' (John 14:7) and 'he who has seen me has seen the Father (John 14:9)…..”

Jesus Christ in the Bahá'í Writings

 

[samtonga43]

Which Bible are you posting your verse from? I have never heard your interpretation before.

Which Bible are you posting your verse from?

 

[samtonga43]

However, a Manifestation of God is not God becoming flesh. If God became flesh, that would be an incarnation.

The doctrine of the Incarnation says that Jesus, while remaining fully God, became fully man.

 

[Trailblazer]

The doctrine of the Incarnation says that Jesus, while remaining fully God, became fully man.

Of course that is logically impossible, but you are free to believe whatever you want to believe.

 

[101G]

Yes, He is.

then case close.

1 Timothy 3-16 God manifest in the flesh

1 Timothy 6:16 "Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen."

and you do know what "ONLY" means, right. so there is no first person, second person, or a third person. there is "ONLY" one person in the Godhead. case closed again.

101G.

 

[Trailblazer]

1 Timothy 6:16 "Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen."

and you do know what "ONLY" means, right. so there is no first person, second person, or a third person. there is "ONLY" one person in the Godhead. case closed again.

I know what ONLY means but I don't know what is implied in this verse. It makes no sense at all, but welcome to Corinthians, which more often than not makes no sense.

Jesus had immortality, but Jesus was not the ONLY person who has immortality. All human souls are immortal.

The verse does not say anything about a Godhead. Those are YOUR words.

"Dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen" is a reference to God, not Jesus.
The verse cannot be applied to Jesus because many people saw Jesus.

Case closed.

 

[Brian2]

GINOLJC, to all.
First thanks for your reply, second, yes its dose. did you understand the definition of a COMPOUND? Compound: 1. a thing that is composed of two or more separate elements; God is not separate, nor divided.

"a thing that is composed of two or more separate elements" is not doubt a possible meaning. That does not mean that everything that Echad is composed of 2 or more separate elements.
A wordbook I have (TWOT) says that Echad stresses unity while allowing diversity within that oneness.
This wordbook goes on to say, concerning Deut 6:4, that it is difficult to translate and there are many possible translations, and that the passage is stressing that there is only one God.
I certainly don't see that the idea of the trinity is debunked with Deut 6:4.

let 101G school you in the TRUTH so that you may KNOW.

understand, God who is the ECHAD of HINSELF is the EQUAL "SHARE" of his OWNSELF in an ordinal designation of First and Last, or respectively "Father", and "Son". let prove this out by the Scriptures,.

Teacher, what does that mean?

Philippians 2:6 "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:"

the term, "FORM" of God, is Spirit, (John 4:24a). and it's the Greek word,
G3444 μορφή morphe (mor-fee') n.
1. form.
2. (intrinsically) fundamental nature.
[perhaps from the base of G3313 (through the idea of adjustment of parts)]
KJV: form
Root(s): G3313
See also: G3445, G3446, G4832

now the million dollar and two cent question, is this, "WHAT KIND OF NATURE THAT MAKE HIM "EQUAL WITH" GOD?". Notice "EQUAL WITH" and not "EQUAL TO"., hold that thought,

the Root of this word, (form), gives us the answer to his, the Lord Jesus, NATURE, and this root word is,
G3313 μέρος meros (me'-ros) n.
1. a portion (i.e. an amount allotted, a part of something).

ANOTHER WORD FOR, "PORTION" IS "SHARE". there is our answer. not a separate person, but the same one person "EQUALLY SHARED", and in this case, G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') in flesh as a man.

I can see how more than one person can share the same form. The Father and Son were spirit and the Son is in the Father and the Father is in the Son. 2 consciousnesses in the same form.

this is why your compound unity is in ERROR. understand, in Philippians 2:6b, it states, "to be equal with God:", and not EQUAL TO GOD. for if he, the Lord Jesus was equal "TO" God that would INDICATE a separate ;person. but by the verse stating, "equal "WITH" God, that indicate the same person., for no one is EQUAL "TO" God. listen and Learn, Isaiah 40:25 "To whom then will ye liken me, or shall I be equal? saith the Holy One." ME, and I are single person designation. one more to get a double witness. . Isaiah 46:5 "To whom will ye liken me, and make me equal, and compare me, that we may be like?". again ME is a single person. ok, one more, Isaiah 40:18 "To whom then will ye liken God? or what likeness will ye compare unto him?". the term God is used and the verse, and it said "him", so God is a SINGLE PERSON. but in the ECHAD he is the EQUAL share of his OWN-SELF, (ANOTHER just as G243 ALLOS STATES). notice, Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he."

The LORD/GOD is the First, and he is "WITH" the Last, and notice, "I AM, I AM once more, I AM ... HE".
I, and HE again are single person designation. Just like in John 1:1 the Word/Son, is "WITH" God/the Father in the beginning. see the "WITH" in John 1:1, as well as in Philippians 2:6, "EQUAL WITH" God. is the SAME one person.

I don't see that "equal with" means the same one person, and if it was "equal to" it would not mean that.
Could you explain that please.
I can see that YHWH stressing again that He is the only God, would say that nobody can be compared to Him. I can also see that this YHWH can be the trinity God saying that.
I also don't see that "with the last" shows that the last is Jesus without some strange manipulations that you have already done with Jesus being said to be the last Adam,,,,,,,,,,,, meaning of course that you are saying that the Father is the first Adam.

now the revelation of "WITH" in the ECHAD of God. Listen, Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last." ALSO? yes, the SAME one Person. see, "WITH" in the Godhead is the same one person "EQUALLY SHARED". that's why the Greek term, G243 Allos, (as mentioned before), express the Hebrew ECHAD as a NUMERICAL Difference of Ordinal First and Ordinal Last, and not a compound Unity. listen, Deuteronomy 6:4 "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:" and the term ONE here,
H259 אֶחָד 'echad (ech-awd') adj.
1. (properly) united, i.e. one.
2. (as an ordinal) first.
[a numeral from H258]
KJV: a, alike, alone, altogether, and, any(-thing), apiece, a certain, (dai-)ly, each (one), + eleven, every, few, first, + highway, a man, once, one, only, other, some, together.
Root(s): H258

definition #1 is where you get your compound unity, but that's an ERROR, as we have proved by the Scriptures, that a unity consists of two or more which the scriptures clearly states that "GOD" is a single person. only definition #2. is the correct answer, because God is a ECHAD "WITH", his OWN-SELF as Ordinal First/FATHER, CREATOR, and MAKER of ALL THINGS. and Ordinal Last/SON,, REDEEMER, and SAVIOUR of all that he CREATED and MADE in the Beginning.

so, the compound unity is an ERROR.

the correct understanding of God is that he's the EQUAL SHARE of HIMSELF in Fesh. one can take this to the bank.

we suggest you copy this and study it for your edification. may the GOD of all CREATION give you understanding.

101G.

Equal share of himself, hmmm.
Can you explain all that in simple language?
The compound unity of echad in Deut 6:4 might be the wrong way to understand it. The passage might just be saying that only YHWH is God and not giving any insight into the nature of God, but the word "echad" does allow for diversity in the unity.
There is just so much in what you said that says nothing to me. If anything it obscures the plain meaning of things.
But speaking of plain meaning, how do you ignore the plain meaning of the scriptures when they show more than one person when Jesus prays to His Father etc. So many simple places that show more than one person and you want to twist the meaning of the Greek and Hebrew around and say that it contradicts those plain places where more than one person is seen.
Jesus was baptised, the Spirit descended as a dove, the Father spoke from heaven.
You avoid speaking about those places.

 

[101G]

I know what ONLY means but I don't know what is implied in this verse. It makes no sense at all, but welcome to Corinthians, which more often than not makes no sense.

GINOLJC, to all,
it implies that there is only , only, only, one person who is God. not two, nor three persons.
by him, the Lord Jesus, having IMMORTALITY ..... "ONLY", that eliminates anyone else who is the source of immorality, everlasting life. Got it now?

Jesus had immortality, but Jesus was not the ONLY person who has immortality. All human souls are immortal.

who told you that lie? listen and Learn. Ezekiel 18:4 "Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die."

well, that corrected the immortal soul lie.

The verse does not say anything about a Godhead. Those are YOUR words.

don't take this the wrong way, but do you ever "THINK" outside the box?

"Dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen" is a reference to God, not Jesus.
The verse cannot be applied to Jesus because many people saw Jesus.

not in flesh, listen and LEARN, John 6:46 "Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father." ....... (smile)... this shows many have no bible study time with God.

now case closed.

ps we suggest you do the first principle of the oracle of God,

Hebrews 5:12 "For when for the time ye ought to be teachers, ye have need that one teach you again which be the first principles of the oracles of God; and are become such as have need of milk, and not of strong meat." Hebrews 5:13 "For every one that useth milk is unskilful in the word of righteousness: for he is a babe." Hebrews 5:14 "But strong meat belongeth to them that are of full age, even those who by reason of use have their senses exercised to discern both good and evil."

so, go back and study with the Holy Spirit, ok. no put down, but these are basic principles the average bible student should know.

101G.

 

[101G]

That does not mean that everything that Echad is composed of 2 or more separate elements.

that's what compound means.

A wordbook I have (TWOT) says that Echad stresses unity while allowing diversity within that oneness.
This wordbook goes on to say, concerning Deut 6:4, that it is difficult to translate and there are many possible translations, and that the passage is stressing that there is only one God.
I certainly don't see that the idea of the trinity is debunked with Deut 6:4.

anytime a book says, "that it is difficult to translat",as you said above, then why use it?

I certainly don't see that the idea of the trinity is debunked with Deut 6:4.

we don't walk by sight ...... and what you see or don't see has nothing to do with 101G, or the TRUTH. for the Word is not changing for anyone. and just because U don't see it maybe you need a change of EYES, so that U can see...... "CLEARLY."

Teacher, what does that mean?

he is his OWN arm IN FLESH, that's what that means?

I can see how more than one person can share the same form. The Father and Son were spirit and the Son is in the Father and the Father is in the Son. 2 consciousnesses in the same form.

Oh you can see now? well lets test those newly developed eyes out. "How much of the ONE Spirit was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') when one of your conscious person was in flesh in the likeness of a man?"

I don't see that "equal with" means the same one person, and if it was "equal to" it would not mean that.
Could you explain that please.

sure, Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he."

here "WITH" is used in conjunction of the First and Last, is this a compound unity? no and here's why. Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last."
the SAME one PERSON

understand, if the scriptures would have said, "EQUAL TO" that would indicate two separate persons in comparison to each other. "WITH" on the OTHER. hand as above is the SAME ONE PERSON

Example when many say Jesus prayed ... "TO" .... the Father, they say that's two separate Persons. ERROR, the Lord Jesus never prayed "TO" anyone except in intercessory prayer on behalf of someone else...... but the Lord Jesus as the ECHAD of his own self. pray the Father, let 101G say it again, he "PRAY the Father" and not pray to the Father, because he is the Father in Spirit, and Son in flesh. hence the intercessory prayer is where he intervenes. understand now? see the reason why he intervenes as intercessor is because he is the MEDIATOR, and ADVO\CATE. My God this is too easy, this is basic bible study, that should be known ..... already.

Equal share of himself, hmmm.
Can you explain all that in simple language?

yes, he's the ECHAD of himself in Ordinal Designation as First and Last. the term, ECHAD/ONE.
H259 אֶחָד 'echad (ech-awd') adj.
1. (properly) united, i.e. one.
2. (as an ordinal) first.
[a numeral from H258]
KJV: a, alike, alone, altogether, and, any(-thing), apiece, a certain, (dai-)ly, each (one), + eleven, every, few, first, + highway, a man, once, one, only, other, some, together.
Root(s): H258

the First is "WITH" the Last who is "ALSO" the Last. how simple can it get?

There is just so much in what you said that says nothing to me. If anything it obscures the plain meaning of things.
But speaking of plain meaning, how do you ignore the plain meaning of the scriptures when they show more than one person when Jesus prays to His Father etc. So many simple places that show more than one person and you want to twist the meaning of the Greek and Hebrew around and say that it contradicts those plain places where more than one person is seen.

see my answer above.

Jesus was baptised, the Spirit descended as a dove, the Father spoke from heaven.
You avoid speaking about those places.

who told you that LIE that the Father spoke from heaven? what do the bible say? Matthew 3:17 "And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased." where in this verse it says the Father spoke from heaven? answer, no where, you, like many others "ASSUMED" that it was the Father's voice by what was said. well that's your classic mistake.... ASSUMPTION. take note, when it comes to the Wiord of God, never assume anything, ...... KNOW.

now where in the veers it said that the Father spoke from heaven?

101G.

 

[Soapy]

Of course that is logically impossible, but you are free to believe whatever you want to believe.

Not only logically impossible but also Scripturally false.

 

[samtonga43]

Of course that is logically impossible, but you are free to believe whatever you want to believe.

And who are you to tell God that He is bound by what is (to you) logically impossible?

Only those who have made logic their god would make such a statement.

 

[Trailblazer]

And who are you to tell God that He is bound by what is (to you) logically impossible?

Did you see me telling God anything?
God is not bound by what is logically impossible since God is not bound by logic or anything else.

Only those who have made logic their god would make such a statement.

False. God is my God.
It is impossible for God to be fully God and fully human.
God would not have a nature that humans cannot understand because God wants humans to understand His nature.

God is both divine and human. That means God is partly God and partly human. A small child could understand that.

 

[Soapy]

And who are you to tell God that He is bound by what is (to you) logically impossible?

Only those who have made logic their god would make such a statement.

It’s not solely logic being referred to here.

Logic is truth… simple truth that relies of FACTS.

But if you say

1. God can do anything
2. God cannot lie
3. God is not God because God if God can do anything then God can lie

What do you think: It is logic - but the third item only SEEMS true because item 1 is a PRESUMPTION- not a FACT!

The truth is that God CANNOT DO EVERYTHING… GOD cannot:

• Kill himself
• Tell a lie
• Relinquish his throne
• Cannot die
• …

God cannot do something that is detrimental to His being god… so item 1 is FALSE and therefore

 

[Trailblazer]

GOD cannot:

• Kill himself
• Tell a lie
• Relinquish his throne
• Cannot die

because if God did any of those things, God would not be God anymore.

Atheists say that omnipotent means that God can do anything...
I tell them it means God is all-powerful, not that God can do anything.

 

[Brian2]

that's what compound means.

No, that is one possible meaning. It does not mean that EVERYTHING that is said to be Echad is composed of 2 or more SEPARATE elements.

anytime a book says, "that it is difficult to translat",as you said above, then why use it?

We can see by the number of different translations that Deut 6:4 is not straight forward.

we don't walk by sight ...... and what you see or don't see has nothing to do with 101G, or the TRUTH. for the Word is not changing for anyone. and just because U don't see it maybe you need a change of EYES, so that U can see...... "CLEARLY."

We do need to walk by the correct translations of scripture.
What is 101G?
What is GINOLJC?
Yes maybe it is me and my eyes.

he is his OWN arm IN FLESH, that's what that means?

Do you mean that Jesus is the arm of God which became a man?
Is that analogy literal? Has the arm got a separate consciousness that speaks to the head with prayer for example? or is the arm just a puppet?

Oh you can see now? well lets test those newly developed eyes out. "How much of the ONE Spirit was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') when one of your conscious person was in flesh in the likeness of a man?"

My understanding is that Jesus remained in the same form of God when He became a man. In the man was the Word and the Father and the Holy Spirit but it was only the Word who became a man and died for our sins.

sure, Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he."

here "WITH" is used in conjunction of the First and Last, is this a compound unity? no and here's why. Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last."
the SAME one PERSON

understand, if the scriptures would have said, "EQUAL TO" that would indicate two separate persons in comparison to each other. "WITH" on the OTHER. hand as above is the SAME ONE PERSON

Example when many say Jesus prayed ... "TO" .... the Father, they say that's two separate Persons. ERROR, the Lord Jesus never prayed "TO" anyone except in intercessory prayer on behalf of someone else...... but the Lord Jesus as the ECHAD of his own self. pray the Father, let 101G say it again, he "PRAY the Father" and not pray to the Father, because he is the Father in Spirit, and Son in flesh. hence the intercessory prayer is where he intervenes. understand now? see the reason why he intervenes as intercessor is because he is the MEDIATOR, and ADVO\CATE. My God this is too easy, this is basic bible study, that should be known ..... already.

I think I get what you are saying but cannot see it as anything but an interesting theory to try to explain your position and which does not succeed and is built on invented word plays which in reality mean nothing.
I don't think "with the last" has anything to do with Jesus being the "last".
I don't think that "with" indicates the same person.
I do think Jesus prayed to His Father.

yes, he's the ECHAD of himself in Ordinal Designation as First and Last. the term, ECHAD/ONE.
H259 אֶחָד 'echad (ech-awd') adj.
1. (properly) united, i.e. one.
2. (as an ordinal) first.
[a numeral from H258]
KJV: a, alike, alone, altogether, and, any(-thing), apiece, a certain, (dai-)ly, each (one), + eleven, every, few, first, + highway, a man, once, one, only, other, some, together.
Root(s): H258

the First is "WITH" the Last who is "ALSO" the Last. how simple can it get?

It is about as simple as the Trinity, but is not the Trinity.

see my answer above.

John 17:4 I have glorified You on earth by accomplishing the work You gave Me to do. 5 And now, Father, glorify Me in Your presence with the glory I had with You before the world existed. 6I have revealed Your name to those You have given Me out of the world. They were Yours; You gave them to Me, and they have kept Your word.…

Sounds more trinity to me than what you believe. The Son was with the Father. 2 of them together enjoying each other's company. God has been a God of interpersonal love from eternity.

who told you that LIE that the Father spoke from heaven? what do the bible say? Matthew 3:17 "And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased." where in this verse it says the Father spoke from heaven? answer, no where, you, like many others "ASSUMED" that it was the Father's voice by what was said. well that's your classic mistake.... ASSUMPTION. take note, when it comes to the Wiord of God, never assume anything, ...... KNOW.

now where in the veers it said that the Father spoke from heaven?

101G.

So because of your belief you assume that the voice was not the Father, despite what the voice said.
No you don't assume that, you KNOW that.
How do you know that? and why do you think God was out to confuse us like that?
Personally since the voice said "This is my son in whom I am well pleased" I would say that is as good as saying that the voice was that of the Father.

 

[Trailblazer]

it implies that there is only , only, only, one person who is God. not two, nor three persons.
by him, the Lord Jesus, having IMMORTALITY ..... "ONLY", that eliminates anyone else who is the source of immorality, everlasting life. Got it now?

1 Timothy 6:16 "Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen."

The verse implies that there is only one God, but God is not a person, God is a Being.

Obviously, this verse applies to God, not to Jesus, since God dwells in the light which no man can approach unto; and no man hath seen God. Many people saw Jesus, so this verses cannot apply to Jesus.

God is the one who confers immortality, and every soul is immortal (see below).
God confers immortality through Jesus, who is the Mediator between God and man.

who told you that lie? listen and Learn. Ezekiel 18:4 "Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die."

well, that corrected the immortal soul lie.

Matthew 16:23-26 But he turned, and said unto Peter, Get thee behind me, Satan: thou art an offence unto me: for thou savourest not the things that be of God, but those that be of men. Then said Jesus unto his disciples, If any man will come after me, let him deny himself, and take up his cross, and follow me. For whosoever will save his life shall lose it: and whosoever will lose his life for my sake shall find it. For what is a man profited, if he shall gain the whole world, and lose his own soul? or what shall a man give in exchange for his soul?

In those verses, Jesus was saying to deny our selfish desires, things we want that are not of God, and to follow in Jesus’ Way. For whoever will live for self and the world shall lose his eternal life, but whoever will sacrifice his life for the sake of Jesus shall gain eternal life.

If we live for self and the worldly things, we gain the world but we lose our soul because we lose eternal life. The soul that gains eternal life is near to God so it is in heaven. The soul that loses eternal life continues to exist in the spiritual world (since all souls are immortal) but that soul is far from God, so it is in hell.

In Verse 23, the things that are not of God, but are rather of men, are the things that cause us to sin, our selfish desires (things of the flesh which men savor). Jesus said to deny our selfish desires and instead follow Him. For whosoever will live for the things of the flesh shall lose it (eternal life), and whosoever will sacrifice those things for Jesus’ sake shall find it (it refers to eternal life).

This is a warning not to exchange one’s eternal life for our selfish desires that cause us to sin.” To lose one’s soul means to lose eternal life, since Eternal Life refers to a “quality” of life, nearness to God, which according to Jesus comes from believing in Him and following in His way.

All souls are immortal since God created the soul to be immortal, but only souls who are near to God have eternal life.
The other souls continue to exist in hell, far from God.

Well, that corrected the immortal soul truth. All souls do not sin so all souls do not die.
Souls who are near to God do not die, they have eternal life.
It's all in the Bible. One just has to understand what the Bible means by eternal life.

John 3:16: For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.

John 3:36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.

John 17:3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

1 John 5:13 I write these things to you who believe in the name of the Son of God that you may know that you have eternal life.

John 5:24 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life,and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.

John 11:25-26 Jesus said to her, “I am the resurrection and the life. He who believes in Me, though he may die, he shall live. And whoever lives and believes in Me shall never die. Do you believe this?”

John 4:13-14 Jesus answered and said unto her, Whosoever drinketh of this water shall thirst again: But whosoever drinketh of the water that I shall give him shall never thirst; but the water that I shall give him shall be in him a well of water springing up into everlasting life.