Does the Bible mention Islam?

[BilliardsBall]

Because the Quran claims that its message is that same message of Christ revealed again with correct interpretations. Also, Quran claims, God has revealed a newer social laws, in comparison to the Revelation of Christ.

Okay--what does it "really mean" to be born again (John 3:3, 3:7, 3:16-17)?

And several hundred verses speak of the crucifixion of Jesus Christ, for human sin. What do these "really mean"?

 

[2ndpillar]

You would think that if a book such as the Bible has significant prophetic content it would mention Islam if it were a true religion from G-d. Even if it were a false religion, wouldn't it get a mention? Lets consider the facts that I hope we can all agree on. The Bible was written by multiple authors over a one thousand year period give or take a few centuries. We have a span of history going back to Adam (if he really existed) and ending with the book of revelation. Over the last 1,900 years since the book of Revelations was written we have the emergence of two major world religions, Christianity and Islam. Research has indicated the number of Muslims in the world is set to exceed the number of Christians in about 50 years.

Why Muslims are the world’s fastest-growing religious group

So if the Tanakh and New Testament are truly prophetic and from G-d why wouldn't these books mention other religions from G-d? Both Islam and Christianity are religions from G-d are they not?

Of course we probably won't agree on 'facts'. Perhaps we won't agree on anything and the best we can do is agree to disagree. But in the interim this is in the religious debates section. So is Islam mentioned in the bible? Why or why not?

The "house of Judah", the Jews are mentioned (Jeremiah 31:31). The "Christians" are mentioned as the "adulteress", bought for the equivalence of 30 Shekels of silver (Hosea 3) The Muslims are mentioned, as with Judah being equivocated as Jews, the Muslims would be equivocated with Essau/Edom(red), such as the potter using red clay, and the clay/Edom, would be united with iron (Rome) in the prophecy of Daniel 2:34-35, which are to be "crushed" by the stone cut without hands (Daniel 2:44-45). As for the "false prophets", you will know them by their fruit (Matthew 7:16-19). The fruit of the Muslims and Catholic (universal Christian) church are part of history, past and present. As for the "many" (Matthew 7:13), they are on the path to "destruction".

 

[Dawnofhope]

I read this link, again.
I hate this "modern scholars" business. Their representation in the Gospels is as the 'scribes'
And adding "we" to create a forgery? No. I bet Luke didn't even realise he had written 'we' when
he wrote his accounts. And claiming Paul's account of Luke was also a form of forgery gets to
be too much.
I am fine with Luke writing this account. In naming the Gospel of Luke SOMEONE must have
known something we don't.

I believe Luke/Acts be an authentic account of the life and teachings of Jesus based on oral traditions and from other written works such as the Gospel of Mark.

I have studied theology at a seminary college. Anyone going through the ministry needs to be thoroughly acquainted with biblical scholarship. Simply accepting a church party line on face value doesn't cut it. People who can't cope with diverse perspectives should find another vocation. Scholars will research and explore ideas from many different angles and will have varying agendas from atheists, liberal Christians to conservative Christians...even people of a different faiths like Baha'is.

The gospel of Luke/Acts books constitute the largest contribution to the New Testament from any one author. The main problem with the Luke being a companion of Paul theory, is that the accounts in Acts has significant variances from the epistles composed by Paul. Its another topic in its own right. Though not directly related to the OP question its a reminder that a conservative Christian world view has many problems and is far from the best approach to understanding the Bible.

 

[Dawnofhope]

This is basic Bible stuff, in all three synoptics, the high priest asks who Jesus is, and Jesus says I AM, and the priest and others say, "We need not witnesses, he blasphemes!"

In Matthew 27, however, Jesus is quoting Psalm 22, the first verse. When a teacher gives the first verse, one is to read the rest of the passage, in which case, we see David surrounded by Gentiles who gamble for his clothing, his hands and feet pierced--and other things that never happened to King David--prophecy!

What is clear was the very human response as Christ was dying on the cross. Matthew 27:46 speaks of the anguish and separation from God as death approaches. Its also significant the gospel author has Him speaking in His native language, Aramaic. The verses are a theological narrative representing BOTH the human suffering of Christ AND a fulfilment of prophecy.

Once again, you haven't provided any quote to support your argument. The 'I AM' line of reasoning may support the Divinity of Christ, but there are different ways to understand what Christ's divinity means. Perhaps the most important place in the gospel that Jesus uses the words "I AM" are John 8:58 and John 14:6. We can't assume to what extent if any this contributed to the Jewish authorities deciding to crucify Jesus. What is clear are the verses that strongly suggest the Messianic claims and 'Son of God' claims were the reason (Matthew 26:63-65). It is the 'Son of God' claim that is linked to "We need not witnesses, He blasphemes", not "I AM" nor Jesus claiming to be God incarnate.

 

[Dale]

You would think that if a book such as the Bible has significant prophetic content it would mention Islam if it were a true religion from G-d. Even if it were a false religion, wouldn't it get a mention? Lets consider the facts that I hope we can all agree on. The Bible was written by multiple authors over a one thousand year period give or take a few centuries. We have a span of history going back to Adam (if he really existed) and ending with the book of revelation. Over the last 1,900 years since the book of Revelations was written we have the emergence of two major world religions, Christianity and Islam. Research has indicated the number of Muslims in the world is set to exceed the number of Christians in about 50 years.

Why Muslims are the world’s fastest-growing religious group

So if the Tanakh and New Testament are truly prophetic and from G-d why wouldn't these books mention other religions from G-d? Both Islam and Christianity are religions from G-d are they not?

Of course we probably won't agree on 'facts'. Perhaps we won't agree on anything and the best we can do is agree to disagree. But in the interim this is in the religious debates section. So is Islam mentioned in the bible? Why or why not?

I will answer you, sense nobody has actually done the research and can answer your question using The Christian scriptures and Jewish Scriptures, that shows Islam and being Muslim is what the previous Prophets and messengers taught and what the Bible teaches.

I will show and prove that everything the Muslims believe and do in worship is actually found in the Hebrew Bible and Christian Bible, because why would the Muslims and God claim that Islam is the religion of the previous prophets when it's not what their scriptures teach and do, then Islam must be false and a different religion altogether, but we Muslims and the Qur'an teaches and are told and taught that Islam is the same faith that all the prophets taught and though the Qur'an says the followers of Jesus called themselves a different name and so did other faiths rooted with Judaism and Christianity, even if they use a different name they are still Muslims and are believers in Allah, unless they worship Jesus as God or deny Muhammad or follow a different false messenger or prophet, then they are nonbelievers.

So don't ask me any questions right now until i post the evidence and what my research have proven to me that nobody can deny or prove false, this is the research for anybody who wants to learn the truth or anybody who wants to disprove me if they can.

It will take some time but i will post it Insha Allah, God willing.

Christians ask and everyone else ask, if Islam is the same religion of the past prophets then why didn't Moses and others teach and do Islam so the Christians claim Islam isn't mentioned in the Bible and it's a false pagan religion, this isn't true, Islam is taught in the Biblical scriptures and now i will show proof in my next post, so be patient and give me some time.

 

[Dawnofhope]

I will answer you, sense nobody has actually done the research and can answer your question using The Christian scriptures and Jewish Scriptures, that shows Islam and being Muslim is what the previous Prophets and messengers taught and what the Bible teaches.

I will show and prove that everything the Muslims believe and do in worship is actually found in the Hebrew Bible and Christian Bible, because why would the Muslims and God claim that Islam is the religion of the previous prophets when it's not what their scriptures teach and do, then Islam must be false and a different religion altogether, but we Muslims and the Qur'an teaches and are told and taught that Islam is the same faith that all the prophets taught and though the Qur'an says the followers of Jesus called themselves a different name and so did other faiths rooted with Judaism and Christianity, even if they use a different name they are still Muslims and are believers in Allah, unless they worship Jesus as God or deny Muhammad or follow a different false messenger or prophet, then they are nonbelievers.

So don't ask me any questions right now until i post the evidence and what my research have proven to me that nobody can deny or prove false, this is the research for anybody who wants to learn the truth or anybody who wants to disprove me if they can.

It will take some time but i will post it Insha Allah, God willing.

Christians ask and everyone else ask, if Islam is the same religion of the past prophets then why didn't Moses and others teach and do Islam so the Christians claim Islam isn't mentioned in the Bible and it's a false pagan religion, this isn't true, Islam is taught in the Biblical scriptures and now i will show proof in my next post, so be patient and give me some time.

Hi Dale and welcome to RF.

It might take some reading but there have been plenty of responses to the OP question from many backgrounds including from Muslims.

A useful starting point might be this article from Wikipedia:

Muhammad and the Bible - Wikipedia

As a Baha'i, I have some similar beliefs to Muslims. I believe Muhammad to be a Messenger of God and the Holy Quran to be the authenticated repository of the Word of God.

I look forward to hear a more detailed response from you soon.

 

[InvestigateTruth]

Okay--what does it "really mean" to be born again (John 3:3, 3:7, 3:16-17)?

And several hundred verses speak of the crucifixion of Jesus Christ, for human sin. What do these "really mean"?

To born again means, with new spiritual teachings of Christ, mankind's spiritual qualities are manifested within them, they become better human beings, more generous, kind, ...etc. Jesus Christ sacrificed His body, so, humanity may become free from sins, by following the teachings of Christ.

 

[Trailblazer]

I have never heard of any connection. The first major wave of Jews going to Israel was in 1882, although obviously there had already been Jewish communities there and smaller groups or individuals that had been making there way there.

It is interesting to note that the first major wave of Jews going to Israel was in 1882, which was during the lifetime of Baha’u’llah, who Baha’is believe was the Messiah. Baha’u’llah lived from 1817-1892.

The question is: Why had Jewish communities there and smaller groups been making their way there before 1882?

The answer to that question is the Edict of Toleration, which was signed in 1844.

An edict of toleration is a declaration, made by a government or ruler and states, that members of a given religion will not be persecuted for engaging in their religious practices and traditions. The edict implies tacit acceptance of the religion rather than its endorsement by the ruling power.

21 March 1844 – Edict of Toleration, seen as beginning the process of allowing Jews to settle in the Holy Land. It reduces punishments for apostasy from death.[3]
Edict of toleration - Wikipedia

The Edict of Toleration was signed in 1844, the exact year of the proclamation of the Baha’i Faith.

• Edict of Toleration 1844

• The Declaration of The Bab-How Religion Begins

Thornton Chase, commonly recognized as the first convert to the Bahá'í Faith of Occidental background, noted the Edict in his publication The Bahai Revelation published in 1909.[14] An Irish convert to the religion, George Townshend was the first broadly published to mention the Edict in Bahá'í literature in 1944[4] when he wrote:
The proclamation of His Faith was made in 1844, the year when the strict exclusion of the Jews from their own land enforced by the Muslims for some twelve centuries was at last relaxed by the Edict of Toleration and "the times of the Gentiles" were "fulfilled."[15]
Edict of Toleration 1844 - Wikipedia​

 

[Trailblazer]

It's because Moses is the only one who demonstrated his credibility to the entire nation. Without that, I'd have no reason to ever believe anyone claiming to be a prophet.........

There's no reason to take the word of a person claiming to be a prophet of G-d on their say so, because their signs could be reasoned away. But at Mt. Sinai, the entire nation experienced a clear revelation of G-d with Moses. That established his prophetic nature beyond any doubt.

But all you have is scriptures saying that the entire nation experienced a clear revelation of God with Moses.There are no eyewitnesses alive today so there is no way to verify that ever happened as recorded in the scriptures.As I am sure you know, there are various interpretations of the scripture regarding what actually happened on Mt. Sinai. How can an outsider like me know what actually happened? I was just reading on this website: What Really Happened at Mount Sinai? - TheTorah.com

What do you think actually happened to the nation on Mt. Sinai? How exactly did the Israelites experience God?

Regarding what happened to the Israelites on Mt. Sinai, I cannot say if there is an authoritative Baha’i position, but there is an authoritative Baha’i position regarding what happened to Moses on Mt. Sinai, that God spoke to Moses at the Burning Bush, because it is recorded in the Writings of Baha’u’llah.

“He went forth from the city, and sojourned in Midian in the service of Shoeb. While returning, Moses entered the holy vale, situate in the wilderness of Sinai, and there beheld the vision of the King of glory from the “Tree that belongeth neither to the East nor to the West.” 19 There He heard the soul-stirring Voice of the Spirit speaking from out of the kindled Fire, bidding Him to shed upon Pharaonic souls the light of divine guidance; so that, liberating them from the shadows of the valley of self and desire, He might enable them to attain the meads of heavenly delight, and delivering them, through the Salsabíl of renunciation, from the bewilderment of remoteness, cause them to enter the peaceful city of the divine presence.” The Kitáb-i-Íqán, pp. 54-55​

Christians and Muslims and Baha’is also have scriptures saying that their Prophets heard the Voice of God. How is what you have for Moses any different from what we have? I am just trying to use logic here and reason.

So basically, every other prophet relies on the commandment in the Torah that Moses prophesied to obey a prophet who passes the tests establishing his prophecy (without which, we'd have no strong reason to believe them). Since they're authority only comes through Moses' prophecy, they don't have the wherewithal to contradict him.

I do not have a problem with Moses' prophecy to obey a prophet who passes the tests establishing his prophecy. From a Baha’i point of view, to contradict Moses one would be contradicting God, since we believe that Moses was a Prophet of God whose Will was identical with the Will of God...

Deuteronomy 18:22 When a prophet speaketh in the name of the Lord, if the thing follow not, nor come to pass, that is the thing which the Lord hath not spoken, but the prophet hath spoken it presumptuously: thou shalt not be afraid of him.​

 

[Trailblazer]

Theres a reason why you don't know what i mean by first earth age and second earth age.
Because the Quran does not teach it and the bible does teach it.

What I mean by, to explain how everything is to come down from the beginning to the end.
Start with back when Satan first started his rebellion against God, explain why it happen and what caused Satan to rebell.
Then from there put everything together all the way down to the coming of Christ Jesus.
The bible expains all of this, what happened in the first earth age and the second earth age which we are living in the second earth age now, When Christ Jesus returns, Christ Jesus will bring about the third earth age.
So what we have is, there are 3 stages of the earth, 1st earth age, 2nd earth age and the 3rd earth age.
The 2nd earth age, is where we're at now. In the 2nd phase in the history of the earth.

The 1st earth age, is where the dinosaurs lived and now we find the remains of the dinosaurs bones.giving witness about the 1st earth age.
Muhammad was not the last of the Prophets, Jesus was very clear that John the Baptist being the last of the
Holy Prophets.

I never heard of first, second and third earth ages. I did not know the Bible very well but I was not aware that it refers back to the age of the dinosaurs.

The Baha’i belief is that there have been many religious cycles, which began when man evolved as a separate species from the animal. The present Universal Cycle consists of the Adamic Cycle and the Baha’i Cycle. The Adamic Cycle (Prophetic Cycle) began with Adam and concluded with Muhammad. We are now living in the Baha’i Cycle, also called the Age of Fulfillment because all prophecies in the Adamic Cycle will be fulfilled during the present cycle.

TABLE: BAHA'I SACRED HISTORY

I. PREVIOUS UNIVERSAL CYCLES - of which no trace remains

II. PRESENT UNIVERSAL CYCLE

A. ADAMIC CYCLE, CYCLE OF PROPHECY - lasted approximately 6,000 year

1. Adam 1. Indian religious figures
2. Noah - Krishna
3. Abraham
4. Moses 2. Zoroaster
5. Jesus 3. Buddha
6. Muhammad
+ Other unknown or unspecified prophets

B. BAHA'I CYCLE, CYCLE OF FULFILLMENT - to last 500,000 years

1. The Bab
2. Bahá'u'lláh - Universal Manifestation for this Universal Cycle

a. Heroic, Primitive, or Apostolic Age - 1844-1921 (or 1932 - the death of Bahiyyih Khanum)

i. Ministry of the Bab (1844-53)
ii. Ministry of Bahá'u'lláh (1853-92)
iii. Ministry of `Abdu'l-Bahá (1892-1921)

b. Formative, Transitional, or Iron Age - 1921 -

i. First Epoch (1921-44/46) - Erection of the Administrative Order
ii. Second Epoch (1946-63) - spread of the Faith beyond the confines of the Western Hemisphere
iii. Third Epoch (1963-86) - emergence of the Faith from obscurity and initiation of social and economic development plans
iv. Fourth Epoch (1986- ) - national communities taking on the responsibility for their own development
v. Successive further Epochs

c. Golden Age
Successive Epochs leading to the Most Great Peace

3. Further Manifestations - under the shadow of Bahá'u'lláh

END OF PRESENT UNIVERSAL CYCLE

III. FURTHER UNIVERSAL CYCLES

Ages and Cycles​

Luke 7:28►"I tell you, among those born of women there is no one greater than John the Baptist, yet the one who is least in the kingdom of God is greater than he"

If Muhammad is to be the last Prophet, then that would mean, that John the Baptist couldn't possibly be the greater prophet born of women.

But yet Jesus very plainly said, among those born of women,there is no one greater than John the Baptist. That would mean, John the Baptist was the last of the Holy Prophets.

So therefore John the Baptist being the greatest of all the Prophets and the last of the Holy Prophets.

To say that among those born of women, there is no one greater than John the Baptist is not to say that John the Baptist was a Prophet. Jesus did not say that John the Baptist was a Prophet of God. Baha’is do not believe that John the Baptist was a Prophet. He was rather the herald, the one who came to announce the coming of Jesus.

 

[Tumah]

It is interesting to note that the first major wave of Jews going to Israel was in 1882, which was during the lifetime of Baha’u’llah, who Baha’is believe was the Messiah. Baha’u’llah lived from 1817-1892.

The question is: Why had Jewish communities there and smaller groups been making their way there before 1882?

The answer to that question is the Edict of Toleration, which was signed in 1844.

No, that is not the answer. Jews have been moving to Israel in waves since well before 1844. 1882 marks the beginning of the Zionist waves of immigration. Before then, there were smaller waves of people moving here for religious reasons (and sometimes to avoid persecution - I vaguely recall reading that some people ended up in Israel after the Spanish Expulsion).

Please see the link below.
Before the First Zionist Aliyot (1799-1882)

 

[Tumah]

But all you have is scriptures saying that the entire nation experienced a clear revelation of God with Moses.There are no eyewitnesses alive today so there is no way to verify that ever happened as recorded in the scriptures.As I am sure you know, there are various interpretations of the scripture regarding what actually happened on Mt. Sinai. How can an outsider like me know what actually happened? I was just reading on this website: What Really Happened at Mount Sinai? - TheTorah.com

What do you think actually happened to the nation on Mt. Sinai? How exactly did the Israelites experience God?

You are asking, why Jews believe what the Torah says is true? I don't see how that question fits the context of the discussion here.

Christians and Muslims and Baha’is also have scriptures saying that their Prophets heard the Voice of God. How is what you have for Moses any different from what we have? I am just trying to use logic here and reason.

Again, because the basis of our belief is not on the prophet having heard the Voice of G-d, but on the national revelation at Mt. Sinai. Because we all, as a nation heard G-d speaking along with Moses, we came to know that Moses was a true prophet of G-d. Before that, there was no empirical proof of his prophet-hood. Had Moses simply come to a group of Jews and claimed to have heard G-d speaking to him, we would not be required to obey him. That claim is not falsifiable. However, once Moses brought the nation to Mt. Sinai and everyone experienced Divine Revelation with Moses, that publicly established his prophet-hood. We did not have to take his word on his say-so, we saw for ourselves that he was indeed on speaking terms with G-d.

If you are asking why following generations would believe Moses as a basis for trusting other prophets, it's because they received the narrative of the national revelation as a tradition from their parents. Ie., "my father told me that his father stood at Mt. Sinai and heard G-d speaking for himself. Here is the Book that he was given during that time-period".

I do not have a problem with Moses' prophecy to obey a prophet who passes the tests establishing his prophecy. From a Baha’i point of view, to contradict Moses one would be contradicting God, since we believe that Moses was a Prophet of God whose Will was identical with the Will of God...

Deuteronomy 18:22 When a prophet speaketh in the name of the Lord, if the thing follow not, nor come to pass, that is the thing which the Lord hath not spoken, but the prophet hath spoken it presumptuously: thou shalt not be afraid of him.​

Great.

 

[PruePhillip]

I believe Luke/Acts be an authentic account of the life and teachings of Jesus based on oral traditions and from other written works such as the Gospel of Mark.

I have studied theology at a seminary college. Anyone going through the ministry needs to be thoroughly acquainted with biblical scholarship. Simply accepting a church party line on face value doesn't cut it. People who can't cope with diverse perspectives should find another vocation. Scholars will research and explore ideas from many different angles and will have varying agendas from atheists, liberal Christians to conservative Christians...even people of a different faiths like Baha'is.

The gospel of Luke/Acts books constitute the largest contribution to the New Testament from any one author. The main problem with the Luke being a companion of Paul theory, is that the accounts in Acts has significant variances from the epistles composed by Paul. Its another topic in its own right. Though not directly related to the OP question its a reminder that a conservative Christian world view has many problems and is far from the best approach to understanding the Bible.

I don't have any particular church POV on this. Just a familiarity with the bible, history and thinking of
moderns who wish to explain away the bible. Yes, there's variance between Paul and Luke - there's variance in each Gospel about the same incidents. I am fine with that - it shows that no church later redacted the text to make them uniform.
Two authors wrote of the Carthaginian Hannibal. They disagree on many points about something which most people would find essentially impossible, ie an African army crossing the Als with Elephants to successfully attack Rome.
ps some see 'variance' WITHIN Paul's teachings, ie we are saved by grace alone, and then adding about a thousand works we are required to perform.

 

[Dawnofhope]

I don't have any particular church POV on this. Just a familiarity with the bible, history and thinking of
moderns who wish to explain away the bible. Yes, there's variance between Paul and Luke - there's variance in each Gospel about the same incidents. I am fine with that - it shows that no church later redacted the text to make them uniform.
Two authors wrote of the Carthaginian Hannibal. They disagree on many points about something which most people would find essentially impossible, ie an African army crossing the Als with Elephants to successfully attack Rome.
ps some see 'variance' WITHIN Paul's teachings, ie we are saved by grace alone, and then adding about a thousand works we are required to perform.

It seems clear enough that its through BOTH grace AND works we are saved.
James 2:14-26

If a tree bears no fruit, what good is it?
Matthew 7:16-20

It is also the responsibility of any sincere follower of Christ to properly understand the nature of Islam before making judgement as if falsely judge a true Messenger of God, then that judgemental will be on us.
Matthew 7:1-4

If we are sincere and seek the truth, then the truth shall set us free.
Matthew 7:7-8
John 8:32

The purpose of this thread is to better understand Islam in both its positive and negative aspects. Many of the principles apply to Christianity too.

 

[W3bcrowf3r]

Because the Quran claims that its message is that same message of Christ revealed again with correct interpretations. Also, Quran claims, God has revealed a newer social laws, in comparison to the Revelation of Christ.

No the Quran did not 'reveal newer social laws'. The Quran even in 5:47 says that we can judge with the Gospel.

The Quran is more for the Arabs, the Gospel more for the Gentiles, the Tora more for the Israelites. God already knew that we human beings would create nationalism. The Quran clearly says that God wants us to be one nation though.

 

[Dawnofhope]

No the Quran did not 'reveal newer social laws'. The Quran even in 5:47 says that we can judge with the Gospel.

The Quran is more for the Arabs, the Gospel more for the Gentiles, the Tora more for the Israelites. God already knew that we human beings would create nationalism. The Quran clearly says that God wants us to be one nation though.

They were new laws for the Pagan tribes He united. They were not the same laws as the Torah, though there was overlap. If God intended for His followers to strictly follow the Torah or Gospels then He would not have created a new religion.

I agree that God wants us united under One Common Faith. It clearly won't be Islam, Christianity or Judaism that achieves that. There is simply too much bad blood and each of these great Faiths were revealed at very different times to now. It will need to be a new Revelation from God.

 

[PruePhillip]

They were new laws for the Pagan tribes He united. They were not the same laws as the Torah, though there was overlap. If God intended for His followers to strictly follow the Torah or Gospels then He would not have created a new religion.

I agree that God wants us united under One Common Faith. It clearly won't be Islam, Christianity or Judaism that achieves that. There is simply too much bad blood and each of these great Faiths were revealed at very different times to now. It will need to be a new Revelation from God.

Then you have no faith in Christ.

 

[BilliardsBall]

What is clear was the very human response as Christ was dying on the cross. Matthew 27:46 speaks of the anguish and separation from God as death approaches. Its also significant the gospel author has Him speaking in His native language, Aramaic. The verses are a theological narrative representing BOTH the human suffering of Christ AND a fulfilment of prophecy.

Once again, you haven't provided any quote to support your argument. The 'I AM' line of reasoning may support the Divinity of Christ, but there are different ways to understand what Christ's divinity means. Perhaps the most important place in the gospel that Jesus uses the words "I AM" are John 8:58 and John 14:6. We can't assume to what extent if any this contributed to the Jewish authorities deciding to crucify Jesus. What is clear are the verses that strongly suggest the Messianic claims and 'Son of God' claims were the reason (Matthew 26:63-65). It is the 'Son of God' claim that is linked to "We need not witnesses, He blasphemes", not "I AM" nor Jesus claiming to be God incarnate.

But in all three synoptics, we have I AM and then an immediate condemnation.

Also, Jesus prior explained that all Israel is called "Sons of God" in Tanakh, eliminating that possibility.

Also, Jesus says I AM... will come on the clouds of Heaven, a direct allusion to Daniel's end times prophecy of Messiah, in which the gospels and in Daniel, Jesus says, "... at the right hand [power] of Father God."

 

[BilliardsBall]

To born again means, with new spiritual teachings of Christ, mankind's spiritual qualities are manifested within them, they become better human beings, more generous, kind, ...etc. Jesus Christ sacrificed His body, so, humanity may become free from sins, by following the teachings of Christ.

Next, we have to deal with hundreds of Bible verses that say:

1) Trying to be "better" is not salvation--salvation requires perfection, for only perfect people may live in Heaven's utopia
2) Jesus died a horrible death, then rose, to make us perfect, not "better"


...Islam and other religions that begin after the NT talk of God making people "better" nor "perfect".

 

[InvestigateTruth]

No the Quran did not 'reveal newer social laws'. The Quran even in 5:47 says that we can judge with the Gospel.

The Quran is more for the Arabs, the Gospel more for the Gentiles, the Tora more for the Israelites. God already knew that we human beings would create nationalism. The Quran clearly says that God wants us to be one nation though.

There are several verses where Quran says, the Laws or commands of God are different in Quran.
It says, for example, some of the Laws that were revealed by Moses, are no longer required.
As an example, see, the covenant of Sabath.