Shermana, apparently.must according to ... ?
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Shermana, apparently.must according to ... ?
OK..... so why does Paul 'bang on' about homosexuals? You accept Mosiac law, or you do not..........?
However he doesn't specifically mention Beastialism. Or incest.
I guess that's allowed now then by their interpretation.
Looks like they can freely Marry their sisters! Or their goats!
Yes, you're mis-reading Acts 21 or something.
As to your other comments...eh, that's not for me, preach to someone else.
the greek word for 'fornication' covers all forms of sexual practices outside of the sexual relations between a married man and woman.
Shermana, apparently.
Would the Mosaic Law apply to the Gentile Christians? My forefathers were all Gentile Pagans before converting to Christianity, and according to Judaism itself, we Gentiles need only to follow the Noahide Laws. Acts 15 gives us a few more requirements, but overall, the Apostles themselves, under the direction of the Holy Spirit, decided that the Law would not apply to the Gentiles coming to Christianity.
It's one thing to say that the Jewish Christians must keep the Law. But us Gentiles? You have a long row to hoe in showing that.
^ "Paul's account of the Jerusalem Council in Galatians 2 and the account of it recorded in Acts have been considered by some scholars as being in open contradiction.", Paget, "Jewish Christianity", in Horbury, et al., "The Cambridge History of Judaism: The Early Roman Period", volume 3, p. 744 (2008). Cambridge University Press.
^ "There is a very strong case against the historicity of Luke's account of the Apostolic Council", Esler, "Community and Gospel in Luke-Acts: The Social and Political Motivations of Lucan Theology", p. 97 (1989). Cambridge University Press.
^ "The historicity of Luke's account in Acts 15 has been questioned on a number of grounds.", Paget, "Jewish Christianity", in Horbury, et al., "The Cambridge History of Judaism: The Early Roman Period", volume 3, p. 744 (2008). Cambridge University Press.
^ "However, numerous scholars have challenged the historicity of the Jerusalem Council as related by Acts, Paul's presence there in the manner that Luke describes, the issue of idol-food being thrust on Paul's Gentile mission, and the historical reliability of Acts in general.", Fotopolous, "Food Offered to Idols in Roman Corinth: a socio-rhetorical reconsideration", pp. 181-182 (2003). Mohr Siebeck.
^ "Sahlin rejects the historicity of Acts completely (Der Messias und das Gottesvolk [1945]). Haenchen’s view is that the Apostolic Council “is an imaginary construction answering to no historical reality” (The Acts of the Apostles [Engtr 1971], p. 463). Dibelius’ view (Studies in the Acts of the Apostles [Engtr 1956], pp. 93–101) is that Luke’s treatment is literary-theological and can make no claim to historical worth.", Mounce, "Apostolic Council", in Bromiley (ed.) "The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia", volume 1, p. 200 (rev. ed. 2001). Wm. B. Eerdmans.
Oh I see, your response is to merely say that I'm misreading Acts 21 and accuse me of preaching instead of offering any semblance of counter rebuttal.
I read Acts 21c twice over.......what Bible are you using? I'm using the KJV.
Now I got where you're coming from!
Therefore? Yes, most people wouldn't feel compelled to become your version of "Nazarenes"......
quote]
Gladly.Acts 21 apparently.
Maybe you'd like to try where "Disciple" epically failed and actually show me how I'm misreading Acts 21 instead of just accusing me of doing so and saying I'm preaching, I'll give you a frubal if you can effectively show where I'm incorrect there.
Acts 21 apparently.
Maybe you'd like to try where "Disciple" epically failed and actually show me how I'm misreading Acts 21 instead of just accusing me of doing so and saying I'm preaching, I'll give you a frubal if you can effectively show where I'm incorrect there.
Very likely.Context Fail.
The context is for gentiles, assuming the historicity is legitimate to begin with and the scholars opposing it are wrong (this would include 21:25 as an interpolation as well). With that said, I'm not sure I understand at all how your rebuttal works to begin with.
The subject was for JEWISH Christians to follow the Law. Did you forget already?
When Jay said "Must" he was referring to Jewish Christians. Perhaps you just misunderstood.
Very likely.
TBH, I'm ambivalent about whether or not the Jewish Christians still kept the Jewish Law (which it seems many of them chose to, whether out of fear of other Jews or whether Christ indeed did command them to). That's their business, not mine.
Saul and his brothers were becoming increasingly fearful of the Jews in Jerusalem. While Saul had said he would be bound and martyred, he eventually gave in to a plan devised by his fellows in Jerusalem, including James, to ease offenses taken. He went from accepting his fate to trying to resist it. From trying to provide the easier yoke, to being yoked up and having his head shaven. The important thing was the believing, which "myriads" of Jews there had. But being "zealous of the law," they were offended by his dismissing of certain Mosaic law. Some of these laws are no longer necessary. As outlined in Acts 21:25.
That has absolutely nothing to do with the fact that James approached Paul about a Rumor that he was bringing JEWISH Christians to abandon the Law of Moses. The implication is that James is most clearly, most indisputably, defacto, necessarily, without any doubt whatsoever, implying that Jewish Christians are in fact, 100%, without question or pause, to obey the Law of Moses. Regardless if verse 25 is interpolated or not, which in any event would ONLY apply to GENTILES. NOT JEWISH Christians. And that is the can of worms I am discussing.
Why is everyone having such difficulty here regarding this simple concept? Are you saying that James, brother of Jesus, and the Jerusalem Church were wrong altogether? Are you saying that Paul was just paying lip service to the tyrannical whims of the misguided brother of Jesus?
Jewish Christians are in fact, 100%, without question or pause, to obey the Law of Moses. Regardless if verse 25 is interpolated or not, which in any event would ONLY apply to GENTILES. NOT JEWISH Christians. And that is the can of worms I am discussing.
Topic: does the Old Testament law(s) apply to Christians?
Please cite your sources when replying. Would be very interested to hear from the Judaism crowd on this one.
I'm saying that Jesus came as a human man for a reason. Same reason James and the Jews were upholding those laws. It would've been a totally different story had Jesus come as a woman or a dog. Catch my drift?
Didn't you state earlier that the Nazarene Christian sect were the only true Christians? What you're implying is the complete conversion from other Christian denominations to the Nazoretic sect, that means people would still be giving up Christian traditions, regardless of their backgrounds.
I have no idea what you're trying to say in relation to what I said.