Tumah
Veteran Member
No it doesn't. It gives that as a consequence of having our sins forgiven.Verse 34 of Jeremiah 31 gives the purpose of receiving God's Spirit (the Torah written on the heart) - which is to 'Know the LORD'.
The purpose appears to be tied to verse 31 - currently, it's possible to transgress the covenant.
Knowing G-d is not atonement. Knowing G-d is knowing G-d (Pro. 3:6). Atonement does help in coming closer to G-d to some degree.IMO, knowing the Lord is at-one-ment. Atonement makes eternal life possible because the soul is united with the Spirit of God.
Naturally. This is what Jeremiah complains about in chapter 7 and 8.The LORD says, 'I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.'
IMO,atonement is not possible without the forgiveness of sin.
Sacrifices do not provide forgiveness at all. Only repentance does that. That's what Psa. 51 is all about.If temporal sacrifices fail to provide lasting forgiveness then a more worthy sacrifice is necessary. Only God is able to make that sacrifice and save his people.
Once you internalize that concept, you'll understand that your last sentence here is misplaced.
No it's not. The new covenant isn't saying that only after G-d inscribes the Torah on our hearts will it be possible to internalize it. It's saying that G-d is going to inscribe the Torah on our hearts. Someone who strives to perfect himself by studying the Torah and internalizing it's precepts until it replaces his own base desires - that's perfectly possible albeit exceedingly hard. And David was one of those who reached that level. Most of the rest of us, will have to wait until the new covenant for G-d to do it for us.Psalm 40: 6-8: 'Sacrifice and offering thou didst not desire; mine ears hast thou opened: burnt offering and sin offering hast thou not required.
Then said I, Lo, I come: in the volume of the book it is written of me, I delight to do thy will, O my God: yea, thy law is within my heart.'
If this were David writing about himself, he could not have said 'thy law is within my heart' because this is a condition of the new covenant that had not, during David's lifetime, come in effect.
I see that you asked a similar question earlier, but I understood previously that you were asking on a national level, not an individual one. As a nation, we do not expect that everyone (and even the majority) will strive as much as David did to attain this level, so it's necessary for G-d to intervene. On an individual level though, it's definitely possible.
No, salvation doesn't mean being saved from Hell. Salvation means being saved from any difficult situation. David went through many and was saved by G-d from all of them. He is perfectly capable of declaring G-d's faithfulness and salvation.So it must be a reference to the Messiah. The Messiah says, Lo, I come. And then in verse 10 he says, 'I have declared thy faithfulness and thy salvation:' Again, this is something that only the Messiah is able to do.
We already know that Paul is on a mission to get gentiles and the way to do that is by anulling the Law and here he's done that by misrepresenting the Psalmist. David is saying in that Psalm the same thing that Jer. 7:21-23 says: G-d doesn't want sin offerings, He wants people not to sin in the first place. That's what David is saying. He doesn't sin so that he could bring sin offerings to make G-d happy. He strives to not sin -to do G-d's Will - in the first place.Which is why Paul writes in Hebrews this reference to the coming Messiah: 'Then said I, Lo I come (in the volume of the book it is written of me,) to do thy will, O God. Above when he said, Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and offering for sin thou wouldst not, neither hadst pleasure therein; which are the offered by the law; Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second. By which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.' [Hebrews 10: 7-10]