OK, here is my answer: (for all involved) We are descendants of males and females. So when did predecessors to humans, according to the theory of evolution, first become male and female? Do you know? Perhaps you know and can help me out here, or, at least give me a good link to the answer. OK?
First of all, males and females are of the same species and evolve together--it is the population that evolves not the individuals.
Second, sexual dichotomy is very ancient: even some single-celled species that can reproduce by division can also reproduce by 'sex' involving crossing over of chromosomes and re-division.
So the existence of males and females goes back long before humans were around: back even before vertebrates were around.
That said, not all species are as rigid on this as mammals (and humans are mammals): for example, many species of fish and amphibian can change genders during their lifetime. The point is that gender is not determined genetically for such species, but by the environment or via hormones.
Genetically determined gender is common to all mammals and birds, but the mechanisms are different (mammals have XX females and XY males, birds have AA males and AB females) so they developed that rigidity independently. For mammals, we don't know the exact timing (reproductive tracts are seldom preserved in fossils), but it is certain that this fixation was produced *at latest* by the beginning of the Cenozoic era (65 million years ago).
Again, this is long before any humans were around.
As for your claim that there needed to be a *first* male and a *first* female, that is simply false. The reason is that species boundaries are not precise, but are broad. As populations change, the males and the females change together through the transition generations. At every stage they are able to interbreed with others *at the time*, even though the beginning and end populations would not be able to. At no point was a line crossed. The boundary is just not that definite.