themadhair
Well-Known Member
Does ignorance signify a lack of explanation? We know all the factors that determine what result a coin-flip will have. If we make the relevant measurements of the forces involved we can correctly determine the result. If we don’t make those measurements we have to use probability – does that mean we have no explanation for that result?MysticPhD said:Ignorance is ALWAYS at the heart of the use of probabilities.
…
You do not know what the coin flip will produce because you are IGNORANT of ALL the factors that will determine it, period.
How did ‘expressed’ become synonymous with ‘understanding’. Oh right, you wanted to erect that straw-man again.Not understanding "every single environmental possibility" equals
But that is not what I, and science, is implying. Gene duplications, translocations, ionisation effects, transcription errors, etc are the source (which you ignored yet again). You seem intent on making this “probability is the source” straw-man. It is getting pathetic at this stage.You cannot imply that you have explained the source of mutations using probability and randomness . . .
10 Accuse science of adopting a position on god(s)fraudulently ruling out any need for a source, like God
20 Ignore the posted correction to my straw-man
30 Goto 10