Alceste
Vagabond
But can it be said with confidence that at the time the Law was given, that it was never carried out?
Seems a little implausible, since honour killings are still pitifully common in the region that spawned this religion.
Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
But can it be said with confidence that at the time the Law was given, that it was never carried out?
So then I just follow whoever has the gun? Whoever has the gun is right? What if some new person kills you and they give me new rules to follow that go against your previous rules. I now follow them right?You wouldn't, but fortunately the metaphor only includes one person with one gun, so the decision is removed entirely.
If everyone has guns then no.But a person with a gun is more powerful than a person without, right?
God created all of us, and he's perfect while we're sinful so yeah he can make whatever rules he wants. You don't have to follow them though.Therefore the person with the power has the right to tell the other person what to do. How does this differ from the logic you apply to God? Just because God supposedly has all the power, why does that make God right, or why does that justify anything that God does?
God created all of us, and he's perfect while we're sinful so yeah he can make whatever rules he wants. You don't have to follow them though.
I do not believe, much to most rabbis discontent, that they are the end all be all of Torah law.
The translations aren't the pure word of God no, but they're about 98%accurate. Also they do say it's a cloth, but not having a cloth wouldn't have meant she wasn't a virgin.Many translations actually say "bloody sheet". Would you say those translations are NOT the word of God? If not, how do you decide which translation is the inspired word of God?
The Hebrew word for kill is ratsac which refers to intentional killing without cause.The first commandment is "thou shalt not kill", not "thou shalt not murder", and was reiterated in the NT by Paul in Romans 13:8:
I never said/claimed God doesn't kill. However he has every right too, he's perfect and we're sinfull.I don't blame you for being confused about what is moral and what isn't if you're trying to base it all on the Bible. The commandment against killing, which is continually violated - even by God Himself - throughout the entire book, without consequence, is one of the most stark self-contradictions in the history of literature.
Yes he woudl've had every right to, but he was being merciful, just as he was merciful to die for all of us.Jesus was sinless. Why couldn't he have stoned her to death? Wouldn't he have been obligated to do so in order to obey God's commandment?
Who's reason?Reason.
The translations aren't the pure word of God no, but they're about 98%accurate. Also they do say it's a cloth, but not having a cloth wouldn't have meant she wasn't a virgin.
No they're not, although when Jesus died he took our sins upon himself. God isn't responsible for what we do. We chose how we want to live our lives. I chose wether I want to live for him or not/whether I want to believe in him or not. When I decide to go to a football game, drink, read a book. It's my choice. He created us but he doesn't control us. It's almost like I was born form my parents but they don't control me. You see what I'm saying.All our sins are his, because as the maker that had full understanding of every single one of our actions before creating us, he is fully responsable for both the good and the bad that we do, because we are the good and the bad that he did and keeps doing.
Who's reason?
They don't state"the definitive virginity proof is-" those are your words, they say the tokens of virginity.At least three of them, maybe more, explicitly state that the definitive virginity-proving characteristic of the "cloth", "bed sheet", "blanket", or "garment" is that it is bloody.
No it says if, "no proof can be found" It doesn't say if "the tokens can't be found."The ONLY valid proof of innocence that verse indicates is the existence of this bloody cloth. Without that single item of "proof", it explicitly states that the girl is to be stoned to death on the steps of her father's house.
Jesus DOESN'T interfere. The people came to him, and he only replies when tey keep questioning him. He gives them the choice too, but none of them are sinless so they don't, and then he has mercy on the girl. Also Jesus is God, so he can do whatever he wants with the law.where Jesus interferes with just such an honour killing by calling on a "sinless" person to cast the first stone, thereby allowing the angry mob to convict themselves by their own conscience, but then doesn't stone her to death himself, contradicting both what you call "God's law" and his own advice to those that would carry out what you believe to be "God's law".
Who developed this method? Or how did it start?"Reason" is a method. People either have the ability to do it or they don't, although many of those who don't can be taught.
The Hebrew word for kill is ratsac which refers to intentional killing without cause.
I never said/claimed God doesn't kill. However he has every right too, he's perfect and we're sinfull.
They don't state"the definitive virginity proof is-" those are your words, they say the tokens of virginity.
No it says if, "no proof can be found" It doesn't say if "the tokens can't be found."
Jesus DOESN'T interfere. The people came to him, and he only replies when tey keep questioning him. He gives them the choice too, but none of them are sinless so they don't, and then he has mercy on the girl. Also Jesus is God, so he can do whatever he wants with the law.
The NT was written in Greek.
I would have thought they'd cover that fact at some point at your church if the entire thing is supposed to be the inspired word of God.
No, I'm not both instances are refering to murder not killing.You claimed god prohibits "murder" but not "killing". If it's the Bible you're going by, you're simply incorrect.
My head's fine, and they said "evidence or proof" not "definitive token" meaning the sheet wasn'tthe only thing to prove it.I literally JUST SHOWED YOU a dozen translations that translate the Hebrew term as "bloody sheet" or "blood-stained garment" instead of "token of virginity". Like, not even five posts ago!
What on earth is going on in your head?
God did set an example. Israel was the example and Christ came to die for our sins and to show us that we no longer have to be under the law. Jesus didn't say, "it didn't matter." He told the women to leave and to no longer live a life of sin. Also those men weren't interested in "justice" they just wanted to trip Jesus up, so they could accuse him.But if it's his law, why wouldn't he uphold it? Especially if he wanted US to uphold it? Wouldn't it make sense to set an example? You'd think a god who thought women should be murdered for promiscuity would be eager to carry out the sentence himself. What are his followers to think when he creates a law that says "You must brutally murder women for merely being accused of promiscuity", then when they catch a woman in the act and bring her to him for justice, says "Meh, never mind, doesn't matter".
Who developed this method? Or how did it start?