Okay let me try to give an analogy,
Lets say there's a little boy(the women) and he steals a cookie(has sexual relationships), which he's not suppose to do. And lets say he gets chocolate(proof), from the cookie, all over his mouth and on his teeth. Now lets say that his brother(the husband) is like "Mom, dad Henry stole a cookie. Well the parents will then go to their son and once they see the chocolate on his mouth and teeth, smell his breath, etc they'll know he stole it.
However they're not punishing him for having chocolate on his teeth and mouth.(the proof of virginity) they're punishing him for stealing the cookie and eating it.
When you say the woman was punished for not bleeding, it's like you're saying the boy was punished for having chocolate all over him.
I'm not refusing to understand it. The woman wa punished for having sexual relationships. If you want to argue that it's not fair to be stoned for having sex outside of marriage then fine, but it's not fair to say she was stoned for not bleeding.
If I lived in that time period and my daughter, knowing the law, went and had sexual relationships then yeah she'd be stoned. I wouldn't want it of course, but it was her choice and I couldn't prevent the elders from stoning her anyway. I think I already answered this question.