It wouldn't be a new song if everyone already knew it, right?
God is saying it WILL be a NEW Song. Had the Laws of Moses pbuh and way of life already been established when Isaiah pbuh was writing his scroll of Future Events to come? YES they had, so what is this NEW Song?
What? No! Kedar is a city in the desert and Sela is a city in the mountains. It's saying that people from the desert, such as Kedar and people from the mountains, such as Sela will sing praise to G-d.
I agree with your understanding of this, and am trying to pinpoint the locations. Kedar was a brother of the Israelites right? His uncle was Jacob/Israel correct? Kedar's cousin Esau married a Ishmaelite woman.
If it will make you happier to have a name, than Joshua is a name of a Jewish prophet who fulfills all the conditions of Deut.
This is a problem because read again Deut 18:15 - 21
15 “The Lord your God will raise up for you
a prophet like me from among you, from your brothers—it is
to him you shall listen— 16 just as you desired of the Lord your God at Horeb on the day of the assembly, when you said, ‘Let me not hear again the voice of the Lord my God or see this great fire any more, lest I die.’ 17 And the Lord said to me, ‘They are right in what they have spoken. 18 I will raise up for them
a prophet like youfrom among their brothers. And I will put my words in
his mouth, and
he shall speak to them all that I command
him. 19 And whoever will not listen to my words that
he shall speak in my name, I myself will require it of him.
In verse 15 Moses pbuh is speaking and he is addressing the Nation of Israel as a single collective.
Verse 16/17 God will no longer speak directly to anyone of Israel as per their request. This excludes ANY Jew.
Verse 18 A Prophet will rise from their brothers. <<<<< How can you be a brother to yourself? Brethren/kinsmen must point to a non Jew
Joshua could not have been this Prophet, he was a Jew and in Deuteronomy 34:10 this is confirmed:
10 And there has not arisen a prophet since in Israel like Moses, whom the Lord knew face to face,
GOD could just have said, I will raise up a Prophet from amongst your seed or descendants, if He was pointing to a Jew.
Yes, the evidence from your Bible shows 900 years after Moses pbuh, Ezra the Scribe wrote 'God's Book' and explained the Laws and statutes to the Nation who all gathered to be taught their new way of life. God in the Qur'an explains they changed what was revealed and threw some of it behind their backs in concealment.
What you've done here is extremely silly. You just picked a few attributes of Moses and said that any following prophet needs to have these attributes to be like Moses. Why did you not also add that they must be born of Amram? Or born of a man and his aunt? Or be born in Egypt? Or split a sea? Or spoke to burning bushes?
What you've done is self-serving. You picked the attributes that best fit Muhammad and interpolated them into the verse.
All the verse actually says is that the following prophet would be from the midst of the Jews, from the Jewish brethren - just like Moses was [from the midst of the Jews and from the Jewish brethren].
That's all.
This Prophet has to be like Moses pbuh, specifically 'like' Moses pbuh, so what set Moses pbuh apart from other Jewish Prophets like Joshua pbuh?
This is why other commentators have suggested Balaam may have been they Prophet mentioned in Deut 18:18, but he was unlike Moses pbuh.
The Sages note the Torah'statement here that in Israel there will never be a Prophet like Moses implies *that among the non-Jewish nations - there could be such a prophet* and the Sages explain this Prophet was Balaam. Artscholl Chumash Commentary on Deuteronomy - pg 187
Interestingly enough the Prophet mentioned in Deut 18:18 had not materialised 200 B.C. or during the First Century A.D. We know this from the Dead Sea Scrolls and Jewish writings from the community of Jesus pbuh, a very well known Jew of the First Century.
You can see why Brethren extends to further afield than Jewish bloodlines:
Starting with Isaac and Ishmael pbut, we know their children intermarried. Moses pbuh himself married a Midianite woman. Remember he took sanctuary with Jethro pbuh the High Priest following his escape from Egypt.
And what became of Ishmael pbuh...
"....and he shall dwell in the presence of all his *
brethren.*" Genesis 16:12
Deuteronomy 18:18 the Prophet like Moses pbuh from amongst the *
brethren* of the people.
Edomites are called
brethren of the Israelites...
Deuteronomy 4 "And command thou the people, saying, Ye are to pass through the coast of your brethren the children of Esau, which dwell in Seir;" <<<< Talking of Seir, you guys dismissed the Prophet to come from there too.
(1) Abram's nephew, Lot, is termed "brother" (Genesis 14:14);
(2) Moses' fellow-countrymen are "brethren" (Exodus 2:11; Acts 3:22; compare Hebrews 7:5);
(3) a member of the same tribe (2 Samuel 19:12);
(4) an ally (Amos 1:9), or an allied or cognate people (Numbers 20:14);
(5) used of common discipleship or the kinship of humanity (Matthew 23:8);
(6) of moral likeness or kinship (Proverbs 18:9);
(7) of friends (Job 6:15);
(8) an equal in rank or office (1 Kings 9:13);
(9) one of the same faith (Acts 11:29; 1 Corinthians 5:11);
(10) a favorite oriental metaphor used to express likeness or similarity (Job 30:29, "I am a brother to jackals");
Brother - International Standard Bible Encyclopedia
Clearly the Ishmaelites are Brethren of the Israelites.
1. Jacob claiming Joseph’s children as his own. Gen 48:5 And now your two sons, who were born to you in the land of Egypt before I came to you in Egypt, are mine; Ephraim and Manasseh shall be mine, as Reuben and Simeon are. 2. Joseph’s grandchildren were credited as his children. Gen 50: 23 And Joseph saw Ephraim's children of the 3rd generation. The children also of Machir the son of Manasseh were counted as Joseph’s own.
The text clearly says from their (the Jews) brethren.
Intermarriage was banned, although marrying into another another nation does not remove one's identity as a Jew.
The children from the marriage would be brothers to the Jewish people.
No. They are related because the same language that the Torah describes in the selection of kings is present in the following passage about the selection of prophets. Whatever interpretation you have for the nature of the kind in chapter 17 will apply to the nature of the prophet in chapter 18. Since we know that the kings selected by G-d were all Jewish it follows that when the same adjectives are used to describe the prophets G-d selects that they will be Jewish as well.
It's clear the Jewish Nation would have no issue with their brethren being made King over them, or a Prophet being sent from amongst their Brethren to them.
This leeway obviously doesn't extend to the expected Messiah, who must descend from the Davidic line.
I have not. I've only used it to establish a point. Rather than deflect the argument, try addressing it.
Simple to address; there's no evidence from History showing anyone used Sihr to perform great miracles.