The Law given to Abraham about circumcision is not necessarily the same thing as that given to Moses.
Actually it was. And that's why God threatened to kill Moses when he didn't obey the law of circumcision. If the law all Abraham all of a sudden didn't apply to Moses, why the threat? And why did Joshua have to re-institute it after Moses had broken the covenant?
As for separating from the people among you, I believe that may refer solely to the forbidden races, as Josephus implies,
Yes, that would be GENTILES! Any "race" that was not the Jews were considered Gentiles.
but Ezra would be quoting a law that does not exist.
It DID exist, because Ezra said that it was instituted as a law.
Ezra 10:2-3
Let us now make a covenant with our God to divorce our pagan wives and to send them away with their children. We will follow the advice given by you and by the others who respect the commands of our God.
Let it be done according to the Law of God.
Now are you suggesting that the "law" part of it ONLY applied to marriage and children, and not to the people in general (as the context of the scripture seems to imply). Because if so, this is yet another example of you cherry picking the scripture!
The individual Law given to Abraham about circumcising his entire household and all his servants is completely separate from the one given to the Jews that they shall circumcise their children, and we see that when the Law was given, apparently the Jews did not circumcise themselves in the second generation since the Exodus, even after being with Moses all that time, they had to be reminded to do it in order to celebrate Passover.
NO cherry picker, that's NOT what it says! The commandment NEVER changed. It was the same commandment during the time of Moses as it was for Abraham. Moses BROKE the covenant (and was threatened/punished) for it. That's why the Jews weren't circumcising anymore. But they took it up again AFTER Moses to re-establish the covenant. There is nothing in scripture that says that it was only meant for "their children". The command was that EVERY MALE AMONG THEM (including slaves) would be circumcised. And even IF the law had change (which it didn't of course), then you'd be contradicting your own point about how the OT laws never changed.
As you can see, the commandment is to circumcise your offspring. "Every male (offspring) of you is to be circumcised".
That's NOT the commandment, and that's not what it says. You added the (offspring) part yourself. Here's what it says:
Genesis 17:10-11
10 This is the covenant that you and your descendants must keep: Each male among you must be circumcised. 11
You must cut off the flesh of your foreskin as a sign of the covenant between me and you.
Keep reading,
And every male who doesn't have it done will be cut off. But that's not a commandment to undergo it.
Yes, actually it is because it says to right there in the black and white of Genesis 17:11. Sorry, but your just wrong!
Were the generations of Israel who had to circumcise themselves before they could obey Passover instantly cut off because they had not had it done?
The answer is YES. That's why they went ahead and got circumcised (so that they could be part of the covenant again). If they were not cut off then they would have been able to participate in Passover.
Let me also add, since I should have been more clear, I was referring to converts and those who weren't of the literal seed of Israel.
Right. Because whenever you get caught saying something that is just flat out WRONG, you have to go back and amend what you previously said in order to somehow make it right. Because you're one of those people that just can't ever admit to being wrong! Trust me, I figured that out about you a long time ago!
A "treaty of friendship" is much different than going in to eat at their house.
Are you friggin kidding me? Now you're just grasping at straws. :sarcastic
Besides, if Jews believed in the whole "Separate yourselves from people around you" as you are interpreting it here, even Orthodox Jews wouldn't even do business with gentiles. They wouldn't even live in the same city, even in isolated neighborhoods. New York would be verboten! Besides, Israel is breaking the Torah by even having foreign relations by your interpretation.
First of all, it's not my interpretation, it's what it actually says! Secondly, most Jews DO seperate themselves from the people around them. It's called the country of Israel - do you watch the news? Thirdly, I think that Jews haved always cherry picked God's word, and applied it ONLY if/when it seems convenient for them to do so at the time. I think this has been the running theme with the Jewish people ever since the Old Testament days (which is why God established the new covenant to replace the old). Jews have NEVER obeyed the whole law! When's the last time Jews stoned their children for disobeying? When's the last time Israel executed a citizen for practicing homosexuality? They don't even obey OT laws today, they only obey the ones that they find convenient.
As you can see, neither of those come from the Law given by Moses. The specific command given to Abraham may or may not be directly applicable as well, otherwise, why would Leviticus 12:3 even be given?
OT laws are not just given ONCE. They are often repeated throughout scripture many times (in several different ways). But if the law once given doesn't change (as you seem to believe) then you are invalidating your own point. The commandment given to Abraham applies until forever, or age-long, or until the end of the Old Covenant, or however you want to put it. But one thing is certain, that would include MOSES, and all subsequent generations of Jews at least until after Jesus dies!
Moses was nearly put to death for not circumcising his son, so this law was apparently known to him at his time.
That's the point I am making! Ergo, the law of Abraham always applied to Moses' generation. And the law was that EVERY MEMBER OF THE HOUSEHOLD be circumcised, not just infants.
So the commandment to be circumcised is not an official commandment in the Mosaic Law, technically speaking, at the very least for Foreigners, who were allowed to be converts but simply weren't allowed to eat at the Passover. Why even include a ruling that only the circumcised can eat of the Passover?
The commandment is official because when one breaks it, they have in fact broken the covenant! It came before the laws of Moses and applies to every generation after Abraham. Being a "convert" meant being circumcised, and therefore allowed to participate in Jewish celebrations. If you were not circumcised, you are not a convert and therefore have no place at Passover. With all due respect, I no longer think that you know what you're talking about anymore. I think that you're seriously
under-analyzing (a euphemism for cherry picking) what scripture says and arbitrarily deciding what laws to apply to whom. But I highly doubt that most Christians, Muslims OR even Jews would agree with your interpretation on this point, and I don't see how your view can be justified with the plain reading of the text.
Even then, if the circumcision law was to be for all generations, anyone who teaches to break it is thus a false prophet.
Which according to you is Moses! And that's why your argument is self-defeating.
Where does that put Paul?
Paul didn't break the covenant. Paul WAS circumcised himself, and he circumcised other Jews. Paul taught that Gentiles didn't have to be circumcised when other Jews were falsely teaching that they did. Paul was right because Gentiles were never given a commandment to be circumcised in the first place. In fact, IF Gentiles were required to become circumcised, that would completely invalidate the point of Jews being circumcised.
So one way or another, you are left with two conclusions:
1) Even if you go by Pre-Mosaic Law, circumcision was absolutely necessary to perform on your offspring, and its for all generations, so anyone who speaks otherwise is a condemnable false teacher.
2. If you believe this law has changed because some prophet came along and said otherwise, than you somehow have to prove that he's a real prophet.
You just created a false dichotomy. The true conclusion (the one that can be reconciled with scripture without cherry picking) is this:
Circumcision was absolutely necessary to perform on ALL males who were to be included into the old covenant (including adults, slaves, and converts, and not limited merely to your own offspring), and this would be a requirement until the old covenant is replaced with the new covenant established by sacrifice of Jesus Christ (prophesied in Jeremiah 31), which would include Gentiles. Because since the new covenant also includes Gentiles, the purpose of circumcision no longer exists. And no, I don't have to "prove" a belief to you. I believe in Jesus Christ and I believe that he died for the sins of everyone who believes in him (as he said). You do not, but I don't require that you prove your belief to me.