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Free will?

PolyHedral

Superabacus Mystic
Assuming you're talking about the following explanation of "functional components":
f: A -> B

"where f is the process that takes input A and output B...The system Rosen uses for an example is the Metabolism-Repair or [M,R] system. The process, f, in this case stands for the entire metabolism goin on in an organism...The transition, f, which is being called metabolism, is a mapping taking some set of metabolites, A, into some set of products, B. What are the members of A? Really everything in the organism has to be included in A, and there has to be an implicit agreement that at least some of the members of A can enter the organism from its environment.
That doesn't explicitly tell us much about A. Is A a set of molecules? Is it a set of other cells? (In which case what are those? What's the numerical structure of a cell?) When we say, "can enter", is this a transitive action? Does that mean we should be talking about A(t), if the contents of A can vary with time?

What are the members of B? Many, if not all, of the memebers of A since the transitions in the reduced system are all strung together in the many intricate patterns or networks that make up the organism's metabolism.
So B might be a superset of A... or it might not. :sarcastic
Also, the the organism's metabolism is made up of patterns of what? Of transitions? Transitions of what?

It also must be true that some members of B leave the organism as products of metabolism...
This almost immediately implies that B should be a time-varying series, assuming that the "members of B" leaving the organism also exclude them from membership of B.

Also, keep in mind what a function does. From a specific member of A, it produces a specific member of B. The function being constructed doesn't appear to do that - certainly, it is not obvious how it would do that, or what that would mean.

First of all, it exists independent of the material parts that make it possible.
It does not physically react with anything, and does not have a defined location or volume. In what way can it be said to exist in the same way molecules exist?
This is not so in the case of functional components...Fragmentability is the aspect of systems that can be reduced to their material parts leaving recognizable material entities as the result. A system is not fragmentable is reducing it to its parts destroys something essential about that system.
This is not (and AFAIK cannot be) supported.
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
...? Quantum mechanics is 'autonomous' from CM: it's a different theory.
"mechanics" isn't a theory, classical or quantum. If we study a system, and we think that our formalisms need not involve those of quantum mechanics, we often simply call it classical. The understanding is that whatever quantum processes are at play in our system do not matter (vanishing h and all that), which brings us to this:
Besides, your source doesn't appear to object to the idea I mentioned: that CM is the result of a QM with vanishingly small h.

The entire paper is about how this (quantization) is circular reasoning, fundamentally, flawed, and should be altered.

Nobody has given me a good reason to believe that quantum mechanics is not only that theory, but is actually what it says on the tin: the formalism of QM is how the universe works.

That doesn't explicitly tell us much about A. Is A a set of molecules? Is it a set of other cells?

So your fine with using some Greek letters and saying "that's the quantum state", because it produces accurate models, but you have a serious problem with doing the same thing with a cell, despite the success here as well? Why aren't you asking about what the wavefunction "is"? Is it describing things in multiple places? Is it describing probabilities of finding a particle?

What happens when avoiding ontological questions about your formalisms leads to a serious problem with the entire scientific endeavour?
Until now, thanks to the American Institute of Physics and the conference they held in 2011 on retrocausation. One of the papers in the published in the volume of accepted papers from the conferences was "Causality Is Inconsistent With Quantum Field Theory".


As mentioned, IMO there is no such point. Why would there be? The domain in which QM produces correct results is a superset of that in which classical mechanics produces valid results.
How do you determine validity? That is, let's say I want to talk about cellular activity in terms of a many-body problem, or an n-body problem. Whatever methods I use, whatever formalisms I use, everything I actually "observe" is classical. And as soon as I start describing things using quantum mechanics at the cellular level (as is being done) then I run into this little problem of describing indistinguishable "bodies" such that I can't even seperate out how many bodies my "n-body" problem consists of. So I slap some Greek letters down (or maybe I just call it a "functional process") and say "this is metabolism-repair" like I say "this is the wavefunction".


"Exactly as it appears." It's not like the universe can't be a line through Hilbert space.

It appears to be greek letters, parentheses, etc? There are lot's of these ψψψψψψψψψ at the subatomic level?

All of the objects in QM's formalism are constructed out of natural numbers.
A function isn't a number, but it is part of QM formalism.

(Sure, complex matrices are not at all similar to natural numbers in behaviour, but they're constructed out of them.) That's pretty much as reductionist as you get.

1) You can't construct complex matrices out of natural numbers.
2) Reductionism is about describing systems in terms of their component parts. Not writing down Greek and saying "this is my system". I haven't described anything. I know when I flip a fair coin the probability that I will get H (for headd) is .5 but I don't say that .5 is what I get. I either got tails, or I got heads. In QM, I literally say something like ψ is "the state" and use this to in order to describe later measurements. When Rosen does this, you object.


I've only ever seen the "measurement problem" refer to the fact that measuring systems disturbs them. Therefore, I have no idea what Dickson's using the term to refer to.

That's what she's describing. There's seems to be something of a disconnect here. The system consists only of notational schemata. You set it up, run your experiment, and get your result. However, you have to be very careful not to "disturb" the "system" because the whole point is to transcribe the system to get specific results, and if you "disturb" the system you won't.


Conciousness is irrelevant - wave-functions collapse when observed.
How do you collapse a bunch of symbols?

I don't see the problem. It is clearly possible to do consistently, as per the example.
I keep quoting studies from the physics literature about problems physicists are having using physics in their experiments and you keep responding that you don't see the problem.

If it were not, surely the theory would not provide answers as successful as they are?
Remember Kelvin and the "two small clouds"? Classical physics was almost complete before the 20th century. And then suddenly it wasn't just incomplete, it was obsolete. Success is great, and classical physics had a lot. Still does. So did and does quantum. But we are now running into increasingly greater obstacles, because we've been trying to keep the quantum world contained in nice little equations such that we don't have to worry about entangled or superpositional states when it comes to biology. That stopped working.


Time has been unfortunately short. There are not enough hours in the day. :(

Too true, alas.

Do global hidden variables count as "non-local?"
See above on the 2011 AIP proceedings.

I don't see the difference. I understood that the mathematics of lots of indistinguishable particles intermingling was already built into the equations.
What does "N" stand for in "N-body problem"? How many bodies, correct? In QED, the reason we have many-body problems isn't just because physicists like to rename stuff. It's also because we don't know how many "bodies' there are.

For one thing, it is neither time-invariant or including time as a parameter.

That's true. Instead we have some system transcribed into notational schemata. Kind of like, well, I don't know...quantum mechanics?



Again with that link? Hm. Anyway, the difference is that if we are finding significant quantum processes going on at the cellular level, as we are, then it's rather problematic to have (on the one hand) quantum formalisms which don't actually correspond to anything, and "classical" equations of motion and so forth which are actually describe cellular dynamics, because now you are creating a model of the cell like Rosen's.

Isn't that true of a really, really chaotic classical system too? Your measurement "changes" the reality from epistemologically (though not ontologically) random value it was into a definite measurement.
Ontologically is what counts.
 
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LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
It does not physically react with anything, and does not have a defined location or volume. In what way can it be said to exist in the same way molecules exist?
Does not react physically with anything. What does that sound like?
"Unlike those of classical statistical physics, quantum objects and processes become irreducibly inaccessible to all our knowledge and conception, and hence are beyond any possibility of explaining the physical nature of the processes, beyond any possible specific ontology, apart from the fact they exist, which is all we can say about them." from Plotnitsky's "Prediction and Repetition in Quantum Mechanics: The EPR Experiment and Quantum Probability" (AIP Conf. Proc. 889).

Or
The wave functions used in these calculations are functions of a set of variables characteristic of the prepared and measured systems. These systems are often microscopic and not directly observable. No wave functions of the preparing and measuring devices enter into the calculation. These devices are described operationally. They are described in terms of things that can be recognized and/or acted upon by technicians. These descriptions refer to the macroscopic properties of the preparing and measuring devices.

We have some notational schema or schemata describing our quantum system or systems, but it doesn't have any real world correspondance the way that classical mechanics requires.
 

PolyHedral

Superabacus Mystic
"mechanics" isn't a theory, classical or quantum.
I did say classical mechanics, which is anything from Newton to GR, all of which are theories of some domain. GR is certainly a theory - you can even embed Maxwell's electromagnetism in it, as well as gravity.

The entire paper is about how this (quantization) is circular reasoning, fundamentally, flawed, and should be altered.
So are the two (adjusted) theories equal? That's a yes or no question; a "tautologically yes," is still a yes.

So your fine with using some Greek letters and saying "that's the quantum state", because it produces accurate models, but you have a serious problem with doing the same thing with a cell, despite the success here as well?
I'm fine with using well-defined algebra, yes. I could represent them by musical notation, for all the semantics care.

Why aren't you asking about what the wavefunction "is"?
Because I know what the wave-function is: it's a function of 4 reals on to complex numbers.

Is it describing things in multiple places? Is it describing probabilities of finding a particle?
In terms of experimental data, the absolute square of the wavefunction at a location determines the probability that a particle will be found to have the statistic that location corresponds to. (Which might be position or momentum)

In terms of ontology? Who knows? Does it make a difference? :shrug:

What happens when avoiding ontological questions about your formalisms leads to a serious problem with the entire scientific endeavour?
Whereas these guys are under the impression that the paper you're citing is nonsense.
These field theories are evidently inconsistent and violate causality and unitarity.

How do you determine validity?
Experimental results.

That is, let's say I want to talk about cellular activity in terms of a many-body problem, or an n-body problem. Whatever methods I use, whatever formalisms I use, everything I actually "observe" is classical. And as soon as I start describing things using quantum mechanics at the cellular level (as is being done) then I run into this little problem of describing indistinguishable "bodies" such that I can't even seperate out how many bodies my "n-body" problem consists of.
Measure the mass very accurately? :p
Just because it's very hard to tell epistemologically how many there are, doesn't mean there's any ontological question of "There's an indeterminate amount of particles here!" (at least, disregarding particle creation/annihilation)

Also, you may run into difficulties modelling a cell with QM if the cell is taking input/output from the external universe - obviously, you must include that input in the model of the cell, which might be intractable.

It appears to be greek letters, parentheses, etc? There are lot's of these ψψψψψψψψψ at the subatomic level?
I thought you better than being obtuse! :p That's like saying a chair is built out of 5 letters. (My description doesn't work very well in this metaphor because there's nothing about the structure of the word "chair" that corresponds to chair-ness, unlike with mathematics.)

A function isn't a number, but it is part of QM formalism.
It's built out of numbers (or other things), though. One definition of a function is a set of pairs of values.

1) You can't construct complex matrices out of natural numbers.
Sure you can. The integers are the natural with additive inverses, the rationals are the integers with closed division, the reals are the set of Cauchy sequences of rationals, the complex numbers are pairs of reals with suitable operations defined, and complex matrices are a x b arrays of complex numbers. (Again, with suitable arithmetic defined.)

Voilà. :p

2) Reductionism is about describing systems in terms of their component parts. Not writing down Greek and saying "this is my system". I haven't described anything.
That's what the Greek is for. It describes things. Because we defined the Greek earlier to mean things. :p

I know when I flip a fair coin the probability that I will get H (for headd) is .5 but I don't say that .5 is what I get. I either got tails, or I got heads. In QM, I literally say something like ψ is "the state" and use this to in order to describe later measurements. When Rosen does this, you object.
Rosen, from what I can gather, is saying that doing that is explicitly impossible. That's what "uncomputable" means - future results cannot be computed.
That's what she's describing. There's seems to be something of a disconnect here. The system consists only of notational schemata.
The system state consists of the thing described by the notational schemata. The map is not the territory; and the Greek, or any other notation, is not Hilbert space.
You set it up, run your experiment, and get your result. However, you have to be very careful not to "disturb" the "system" because the whole point is to transcribe the system to get specific results, and if you "disturb" the system you won't.
If you disturb the system, it evolves in a different way than the way you're trying to experiment on, which means you can't complete the experiment. Oops.

How do you collapse a bunch of symbols?
By writing them smaller. :p

I keep quoting studies from the physics literature about problems physicists are having using physics in their experiments and you keep responding that you don't see the problem.
The problems the physicists are talking about seem to be epistemological - "we can't use this theory because we couldn't measure what we needed." I haven't seen anyone apart from Rosen suggest that, ontologically, quantum is wrong.

Remember Kelvin and the "two small clouds"? Classical physics was almost complete before the 20th century. And then suddenly it wasn't just incomplete, it was obsolete.
It's not quite obsolete - it's still accurate in a specific domain. Hence why civil engineers can get away with not caring about the uncertainty principle, or matrix arithmetic.

But we are now running into increasingly greater obstacles, because we've been trying to keep the quantum world contained in nice little equations such that we don't have to worry about entangled or superpositional states when it comes to biology. That stopped working.
Entanglement, superposition and all other such phenomena does not lead to, AFAIK 1) uncomputability, 2) acausality.

What does "N" stand for in "N-body problem"? How many bodies, correct? In QED, the reason we have many-body problems isn't just because physicists like to rename stuff. It's also because we don't know how many "bodies' there are.
Is that with or without creation/annihilation? Because all the conservation laws still hold, so it's pretty easy to tell how many real bodies you have in the case of, e.g. a hydrogen atom.

That's true. Instead we have some system transcribed into notational schemata. Kind of like, well, I don't know...quantum mechanics?
The notation you've presented so far is hopelessly vague. :p

Anyway, the difference is that if we are finding significant quantum processes going on at the cellular level, as we are, then it's rather problematic to have (on the one hand) quantum formalisms which don't actually correspond to anything, and "classical" equations of motion and so forth which are actually describe cellular dynamics, because now you are creating a model of the cell like Rosen's.
Well, if we can get away with a "classical" description, even a Hamiltonian one, why all the angst over quantum reality?

We have some notational schema or schemata describing our quantum system or systems, but it doesn't have any real world correspondance the way that classical mechanics requires.
And? The structures used don't need to correspond to the "real world" (what is that, exactly? :p) in any way for the theory to be correct.
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
I did say classical mechanics, which is anything from Newton to GR, all of which are theories of some domain.

There's a rather important distinction (I'm not just nitpicking here, or at least I am doing so for reasons at least as important as your problem with the type of model Rosen and systems bioloby uses). And not just between "mechanics" and "theory", but between "theory" and everything else. The reason this has become particularly important in the sciences since the 20th century in general, and with physics in specifically, is precisely because of the rather drastic changes in how we not only understand the world, but the relationship between theory, methods, and the world. The first two things to radically alter the earlier positivism were Einstein's relativity theories and quantum mechanics. The latter was far more problematic in practice. Since the advent of modern science, hypotheses were formulated and tested against some isolated system. As far as the sciences were concerned, physics reigned supreme in its achievements and its development of sophisticated mathematical tools all of which not only provided a language of increasing rigor in which to frame hypotheses, but also the methods to test them and the equations for modelling them. Then all of a sudden this was no longer true. Physical systems existed which were not measured, tested, and then modelled, but were formulated out of the abstractions of mathematics themselves. No challenge to epistemology from Kant onwards had ever so disturbed the practice of the science (physics). Centuries of developing mathematical models out of measurements performed on systems, and now suddenly the most basic stuff of all reality (matter) was no longer being measured using abstract, formal language as a notational device; the notations were the systems (or as close as we could get to them).


The reason, then, that it is so important to distinguish mechanics (classical or quantum or statistical), from theory is that whether one wishes to call mechanics a science or a method or a tool or whatever, it had been the systematic use of mathematical notations, mathematical methods, and observations on the dynamics of systems in order to build theories. Now, quantum mechanics, quantum field theory/quantum electrodynamics, etc,. no longer have these divides.

So are the two (adjusted) theories equal? That's a yes or no question; a "tautologically yes," is still a yes.

Again, that's the problem. These are methods. Not theories. They are the means by which we construct models of reality. The issue, however, is that whatever problems there are describing complex systems like weather, these are of a fundamentally different nature. They are about too many interactions with other systems, processes within systems, and the number of "parts". But if our models say that the earth will warm over some number of years by x amount, and it doesn't hit x (but comes close), we know how inaccurate our model was.

The problem with quantum mechanics, and the reason that your remark about philosophers is so fundamentally at odds with the nature of debates within physics, is that these same problems are certainly there, but there are also a qualitatively different set. Physics is suddenly beset by issues which have plagued the social sciences: too much of the "theories" are built into the practice (that is, into the experimental designs, mathematical techniques, and interpretations of the observed results).

Arguments over quantization, or quantum mechanics in general aren't simply decided by testing. They can't be. Even though we have actually been able to carry out what were previously thought experiements, that hasn't stopped debates such that your question:
So are the two (adjusted) theories equal? That's a yes or no question; a "tautologically yes," is still a yes.
can be answered.

That's more or less the measurement problem. The experiements run on quantum systems are fundamentally limited not simply because we aren't actually observing the system, but because we are setting it up in a particular way such that our set up, transcription, and subsequent measurments allow us to test hypotheses only to the extent our set-up and transcription actually allowed us to. When Dickson talks about the measurement problem being one of assigning the "wrong state", its because what state we measure isn't telling us something about the state of a system in the classical sense, but is telling us that having set the state up in a particular way, and letting it "run", we then measured a corresponding state. What this corresponding state will be is determined (at least in part) by how we set up the measurement devices and the experiment itself to begin with. Which means when we measure some state we didn't expect, or measure any state of any quantum system, there is always the problem of knowing what exactly happened because of the system, vs. because of the way we set it up and measured it.


Because I know what the wave-function is: it's a function of 4 reals on to complex numbers.

If you want the wavefunction to be something like
a function of 4 reals on to complex numbers.
that's great. But then that's what it is, not something used to describe anything in reality. I can use the equation e=mc^2, as a function, model, in terms of physical reality or in terms of measurements of reality or in other ways, all because I don't limit it to some abstract mathematical realm. I say that e is "energy" and that m is "matter" and that "c" is the speed of light in a vacuum, such that energy is a function of both matter and of light. NOT "e", but something in the real world.

You seem to think that the cavalier treatment of quantum formalisms is not a problem. And this does explain rather well why your response to actual physicists saying "this is a problem" is "i don't see the problem". When you are actually trying to sort out what an experiment shows, and how to incorporate this result into our understanding of reality, but the system you were experimenting on is a
a function of 4 reals on to complex numbers.
, how on earth do you say anything about reality at all?

In terms of experimental data, the absolute square of the wavefunction at a location determines the probability that a particle will be found to have the statistic that location corresponds to. (Which might be position or momentum)

No. Because your "experimental data" meant transcribing your system into your wavefunction. The specifications, transcriptions, and experimental design are not seperated. That's the "classical/quantum" divide (and measurement) problem. My system is my abstraction. You seem to think that all we need to do is throw out the Copenhagen interpretation and simply use the math and get the results. Were it that simple, we'd have done this. The problem is that we don't have anything except math to represent these systems, or parts of them. Perhaps the best way to make this quite clear, and the issue of the many-body problem too, is to take the intro example from a simple physics textbook A Quantum Approach to Condensed Matter Physics (Cambridge University Press, 2002):
"The most fundamental question that one might be expected to answer is ‘‘why are there solids?’’ That is, if we were given a large number of atoms of copper, why should they form themselves into the regular array that we know as a crystal of metallic copper?
We are ill-equipped to answer these questions in any other than a qualitative way, for they demand the solution of the many-body problem in one of its most difficult forms. We should have to consider the interactions between large numbers of identical copper nuclei – identical, that is, if we were fortunate enough to have an isotopically pure specimen – and even larger numbers of electrons. We should be able to omit neither the spins of the electrons nor the electric quadrupole moments of the nuclei. Provided we treated the problem with the methods of relativistic quantum mechanics, we could hope that the solution we obtained would be a good picture of the physical reality, and that we should then be able to predict all the properties of copper.
But, of course, such a task is impossible. Methods have not yet been developed that can find even the lowest-lying exact energy level of such a complex system. The best that we can do at present is to guess at the form the states will take, and then to try and calculate their energy." p.1

When we set-up quantum experiments to determine things like the properties of matter (e.g., copper), we are significantly determining the results we get by the specifications and transcription process alone.

Whereas these guys are under the impression that the paper you're citing is nonsense.
1) The paper you cited is 11 years older.
2) Guess what? There are lots of papers like the one I cited:
Laboratory Demonstration of Retroactive Influence in a Digital System
On the incompatibility between quantum theory and general relativity
Does time-symmetry imply retrocausality? How the quantum world says “Maybe”?
Quantum mechanics: The reality gap

And on and on. And there are lots of responses. Because the disagreement concerns interpretations of things we are representing mathematically.
 
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LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
I thought you better than being obtuse! :p
On the contrary, I'm being extremely precise. I wasn't joking (or being flippant) by the question about finding greek letters instead of quantum systems. It's the fundamental nature of debate within the physics community, and it is not just relegated to some land of philosophy. It is involved in every single experiment we do which involves quantum systems and quantum mechanics. What we are doing is essentinally this:
That's like saying a chair is built out of 5 letters.

Or, with Rosen, constructing a model of a cell which can be mathematically precise (I can describe it as formally as you like mathematically), but which lacks the one-to-one correspondence typical of classical models. It is, however, exactly the type of model used in quantum mechanics. The abstraction is supposed to represent a physical system, and it works in a certain sense (in that, just like models in systems biology, we can make predictions which are confirmed by measurements, we can test hypotheses, we can use our models to inform us about system processes, evolutions, etc.), but only in the sense that the model you objected to does.


It's built out of numbers (or other things), though. One definition of a function is a set of pairs of values.
A function is not a wave function. One is supposed to represent, in some way, physical reality. Yet, when we pose similar questions to these:

That doesn't explicitly tell us much about A. Is A a set of molecules? Is it a set of other cells? (In which case what are those? What's the numerical structure of a cell?) When we say, "can enter", is this a transitive action? Does that mean we should be talking about A(t), if the contents of A can vary with time?
we get similar non-answers.


Rosen, from what I can gather, is saying that doing that is explicitly impossible. That's what "uncomputable" means - future results cannot be computed.

The system state consists of the thing described by the notational schemata. The map is not the territory; and the Greek, or any other notation, is not Hilbert space.

That's my point. When describe a quantum system, or if we use a model like those based on Rosen's work, we describe a physical system using a model in which there is no one-to-one correspondence between the symbols and the system. There is a correspondence, but it is conceptual. That's the difficulty which I described above, and the reason why there is such disagreement over rather fundamental questions (like, say, causality or whether or not the GTR is consistent with quantum theories).

If you disturb the system, it evolves in a different way than the way you're trying to experiment on, which means you can't complete the experiment. Oops.
If you "disturb" the "system", the only way you know that you did is because you get results you did not intend. What you do not know is how to interpret either results you intended or did not, because "measure" and "disturb" are the same thing. Your entire system exists only as symbols your transcribed it into, and thus there is no way to know whether or not what you "measure" should be interpreted as a measurement or disturbance.

The problems the physicists are talking about seem to be epistemological - "we can't use this theory because we couldn't measure what we needed." I haven't seen anyone apart from Rosen suggest that, ontologically, quantum is wrong.
What ontology? The epistemology and ontology have no divide. Which (again) is the classical/quantum divide problem, and which is also the "measurement" problem. Our way of understanding or knowing (epistemology) reality is to abstract from physical reality and represent a system which has no clear ontological interpretation.

It's not quite obsolete - it's still accurate in a specific domain. Hence why civil engineers can get away with not caring about the uncertainty principle, or matrix arithmetic.

They aren't using classical physics per se, but classical mechanics. Admittedly, these terms do get thrown around in inconsistent ways, but the relevant point is that when we use "classical physics", what we mean is that our methods correspond to those which were used earlier. We do not mean that we are using the theories of reality as they were understood within the physics community before quantum mechanics.


Entanglement, superposition and all other such phenomena does not lead to, AFAIK 1) uncomputability, 2) acausality.

Prove it. Why do you think studies like those I've linked to exist? Because the members of the AIP, the journal reviewers, etc., don't know physics? I linked to a paper which proved that QFT and causality were inconsistent. What you might notice, however, is that the proof is both mathematical and invovles the interpretation of certain results (even of theories), which isn't supposed to be what proofs do. Science has theories, and leaves proofs to mathematics for a reason. So why the proof? Because although we're dealing with physical reality, because QFT represents this as a mathematical abstraction, whether or not the proof the author gave is correct has nothing to do with the way in which proofs are usually deemed correct or incorrect. Simplistically, QFT finds itself in the awkward position of having contradicting proofs which are valid, but which are either sound or unsound depending on a particular interpretation of the symbolisms used, because these symbols are the systems we are dealing with.



Well, if we can get away with a "classical" description, even a Hamiltonian one, why all the angst over quantum reality?
Because we can't "get away" with it. It doesn't work.

And? The structures used don't need to correspond to the "real world" (what is that, exactly? :p) in any way for the theory to be correct.

So what is your problem with Rosen-type models of cells?
 

PolyHedral

Superabacus Mystic
Physical systems existed which were not measured, tested, and then modelled, but were formulated out of the abstractions of mathematics themselves. No challenge to epistemology from Kant onwards had ever so disturbed the practice of the science (physics). Centuries of developing mathematical models out of measurements performed on systems, and now suddenly the most basic stuff of all reality (matter) was no longer being measured using abstract, formal language as a notational device; the notations were the systems (or as close as we could get to them).
Surely this is somewhat of an inevitable consequence of approaching a theory of everything? The theory of everything will, by definition, be equivalent to the universe itself. There is no requirement that the variables and computations used in the "true model" of the universe represent things actually observable from within that universe. (I consider the question of a sufficiently detailed simulation being distinguishable from reality to be answered negatively. I can justify that answer to you if you don't believe it.)

Again, that's the problem. These are methods. Not theories.
There is only one means with which we construct models of reality: observe, explain, test by observation, repeat. It produced quantum mechanics in exactly the same manner as it produced classical mechanics.

They are the means by which we construct models of reality. The issue, however, is that whatever problems there are describing complex systems like weather, these are of a fundamentally different nature.
The weather is not fundamentally different from any other thermodynamics problem. It's just so huge that its intractable.

Physics is suddenly beset by issues which have plagued the social sciences: too much of the "theories" are built into the practice (that is, into the experimental designs, mathematical techniques, and interpretations of the observed results).
Every interpretation of the theory must produce the same answers - otherwise they're different theories, and we can experimentally determine which one is correct. (With the usual caveats about if the experiments are really impractical.)

Arguments over quantization, or quantum mechanics in general aren't simply decided by testing. They can't be. Even though we have actually been able to carry out what were previously thought experiements, that hasn't stopped debates such that your question:
can be answered.
The question is one of mathematics. No interpretation is needed.

What this corresponding state will be is determined (at least in part) by how we set up the measurement devices and the experiment itself to begin with. Which means when we measure some state we didn't expect, or measure any state of any quantum system, there is always the problem of knowing what exactly happened because of the system, vs. because of the way we set it up and measured it.
I fail to see what the actual objection is here. Of course we set up the system into some state, and let it evolve, and then measure it afterwards. The universe isn't going to be so kind as to demonstrate increasingly advanced physics for us! How is this different from the Newtonian case of, e.g. measuring gravity with pendulums, apart from the fact that we can more easily see which mathematical quantities correspond to observation? :shrug: I can formulate my swinging pendulum as a state vector too, and define its evolution in a way that's very similar to a quantum mechanics where h=0. I might have to pass through Lagrangian or Hamiltonian dynamics, but it can certainly be done.

If you want the wavefunction to be something like that's great. But then that's what it is, not something used to describe anything in reality. I can use the equation e=mc^2, as a function, model, in terms of physical reality or in terms of measurements of reality or in other ways, all because I don't limit it to some abstract mathematical realm. I say that e is "energy" and that m is "matter" and that "c" is the speed of light in a vacuum, such that energy is a function of both matter and of light. NOT "e", but something in the real world.
The semantics of those 4 real numbers (that is, they correspond to 3 dimensions of space and 1 of time) is a matter of interpretation, although in this case an obvious one. Within the mathematics, the wavefunction is an object mapping 4 real numbers onto 1 complex number - because there is no such thing as "space" or "time" within mathematical logic, only structures which behave in certain ways.

The problem is that we don't have anything except math to represent these systems, or parts of them.
But there's no actual philosophical problem with this. The only thing requiring observable, or even hypothetically-observable "things" for the maths to match up to is us, and the universe doesn't care about what we think. It just goes on computing.

But, of course, such a task is impossible. Methods have not yet been developed that can find even the lowest-lying exact energy level of such a complex system.
There is no suggestion from any of that explanation that such a solution does not exist; only that we do not currently have the tools to find it. If you gave me arbitrary computational power, (and a few years to do the programming) I could find such a solution - because I can have the computer do the mathematics research to find a tool for the solution itself, and then use it to find the solution.

When we set-up quantum experiments to determine things like the properties of matter (e.g., copper), we are significantly determining the results we get by the specifications and transcription process alone.
As mentioned, please explain why this is not so in classical experiments.

Guess what? There are lots of papers like the one I cited:
Laboratory Demonstration of Retroactive Influence in a Digital System
On the incompatibility between quantum theory and general relativity
Does time-symmetry imply retrocausality? How the quantum world says “Maybe”?
Quantum mechanics: The reality gap

And on and on. And there are lots of responses. Because the disagreement concerns interpretations of things we are representing mathematically.
I've not managed to read any of these papers in full, but from the abstracts,
1)
This failure to replicate is an indication that there is an additional uncontrolled variable that must be taken into account, quite possibly the intention and enthusiasm of the experimenters.
:areyoucra
2) ...Well, yeah. That's why QFT isn't a theory of everything. It doesn't produce the results of GR (which works in the new-and-improved curved space) when used in... flat space? Duh? :shrug:
3) Time-symmetry is known not to be the case.
4) This is working the wrong way around. It should be asking how to derive observed quantities from QM, not what QM "really" corresponds to. Why should there be a reality apart from QM/QFT?

Or, with Rosen, constructing a model of a cell which can be mathematically precise (I can describe it as formally as you like mathematically), but which lacks the one-to-one correspondence typical of classical models.
You described it "mathematically" earlier, but failed to answer the questions I asked about how to actually formulate the object you were trying to use.

A function is not a wave function. One is supposed to represent, in some way, physical reality.
Wavefunctions are functions. Specifically, they are functions that fit a specific interface, and have a specific semantic meaning.

Yet, when we pose similar questions to these: we get similar non-answers.
So pose them.

If you "disturb" the "system", the only way you know that you did is because you get results you did not intend.
Also, the theory tells you so. That is, actions which disturb the system are enumerated by the theory.

What you do not know is how to interpret either results you intended or did not, because "measure" and "disturb" are the same thing. Your entire system exists only as symbols your transcribed it into, and thus there is no way to know whether or not what you "measure" should be interpreted as a measurement or disturbance.
Well, no. The distinction is only meaningful with a specific goal.

What ontology? The epistemology and ontology have no divide.
They absolutely do. It is impossible to know the whole universe, yet it is quite clearly there. (Whatever it is.)

Prove it. Why do you think studies like those I've linked to exist? Because the members of the AIP, the journal reviewers, etc., don't know physics? I linked to a paper which proved that QFT and causality were inconsistent. What you might notice, however, is that the proof is both mathematical and invovles the interpretation of certain results (even of theories), which isn't supposed to be what proofs do.
Well, yeah. The requirement is that experimental data is validated, and since nobody has patented an ansible, I'm fairly confident in the stated belief that causality cannot be violated.

So what is your problem with Rosen-type models of cells?
They are, by your own admission, uncomputable. This is impossible - nothing in SM physics can lead to uncomputability.
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
There seems to be a rather fundamental misunderstanding, which I think is best approached by responding to the following:

They are, by your own admission, uncomputable. This is impossible - nothing in SM physics can lead to uncomputability.

To adopt your response to the problems all these physicists are so upset about, "so what?" Why do we have quantum mechanics? Because there were things we couldn't explain using classical methods. We can say something about them, because we measure interactions. But we can do this with Rosen's model, and it is also true that we have no idea how to explain what cells do (and Rosen's proof, as formulated even after Rosen and continuing today, demonstrates that we aren't dealing with something which can be explained using classical models, classical statistical mechanics, etc.).

The only difference here is that we can actually see that our models of cells are incomplete. If they were complete, we'd have full models which were computable and completely simulated cellular dynamics for any arbitrary period of time. In other words, while we don't know exactly why our models of cells or biological systems are wrong, or how to understand what's missing in a way which would "fix" this, we can at least see that the systems we model do not correspond with ours in a one-to-one way. Which means when we run our "approximate" models and simlulate cells, we can at least observe the fact that the systems don't match up with or models.

We can't do this for quantum systems. When we "set up" a quantum system, all that means is that we set up devices which will cause something we call the dynamics of the quantum system to occur in some way, such that combining the way we set up the experiment, and using a probability function, we can predict what we will get when we interfere with the system.

Thus we have a problem, namely that this:
Of course we set up the system into some state, and let it evolve, and then measure it afterwards.

is a completely inaccurate description of how experiments on quantum systems are done. We don't "set up the system into some state", because we have no "system". Or, alterantively, we have a system, but we never measure it. We only disturb it. That's what the measurement problem is (italics in original, emphasis added):

"The measurement problem or measurement paradox is a key issue for quantum theory. Measurement is the location of the unpredictability of outcomes, consistent with the quantum uncertainty relations; but it is not an outcome of standard quantum dynamics, although it is crucial to the theory.
It is a fundamental aspect of quantum theory that the uncertainty of measurement outcomes is unresolvable: it is not even in principle possible to obtain enough data to determine a unique outcome of quantum events. This unpredictability is not a result of a lack of information: it is the very nature of the underlying physics. This uncertainty is made manifest when a measurement takes place, and only then...
However the process of determining experimental results – a measurement – cannot be represented by the standard quantum state evolution equations, such as the Schrödinger and Dirac equations, for those are predictable (they obey existence and uniqueness theorems) and time reversible. They simply do not have the kind of nature that can lead to an unpredictable result when the initial state is fully known; but that is what happens in quantum measurements, which do not obey linearity and hence violate the superposition principle.
This is the measurement paradox: the process of measurement cannot be described by standard quantum dynamics."
Ellis, G. F. (2012). On the limits of quantum theory: Contextuality and the quantum–classical cut. Annals of Physics.

Nor can we simply "solve" the problem by going where the math takes us. Because, as Leggett ("Realism and the physical world" Reports on Progress in Physics vol 71(2); 2008) showed, regardless of the formalisms themselves, it is the actual experiments which demonstrate that reality at the macroscopic level is inconsistent with that we associate with reality. Something has to go: either we alter some fundamental component of our understanding of physics and physical reality, like causality, the arrow of time, etc., or we follow Einstein and say quantum theory is simply flawed.

Why is it that there are so many papers in the technical literature about the ways in which quantum theory demonstrates something like inconsistency with causality, the arrow of time, the GTR, more than one of these, and so forth, yet the entire physics community is not aligned either behind one of these arguments or one of the arguments against any or all of them? Because this:

There is only one means with which we construct models of reality: observe, explain, test by observation, repeat. It produced quantum mechanics in exactly the same manner as it produced classical mechanics.
is just not true. It wasn't exactly true in classical physics, but it is far less true (or simply false) in quantum physics. In modern physics, when dealing with quantum processes, quantum systems, quantum mechanics, etc., we don't "test by observation". In classical physics, we observed systems and constructed models, and tested these by further observations. In quantum mechanics, we do not observe systems. We only destroy them, and then try to infer whether we destroyed them in the "right way" somehow. Then we extrapolate models about the basic nature of all matter from the fact that we destoyed the systems we are talking about.

So sure, we can just act like the wavefunction is a function which allows us to make predictions about where we will find particles. And we did. Until this stopped working. It stopped working when Schrödinger's cat started appearing in actual experiments. When our instruments no longer lent any empirical support to what had never had theoretical support to begin with: the quantum/classical divide or how we could "derive" the classical world we observe from quantum mechanics. We devised notions like "wave collapse" and talked about some "vanishing h" which we drafted mostly out of thin air in the hopes that we could eventually use these to show how the classical world "emerged" out of the quantum world through "decoherence" or whatever. And despite your reaction to actual research in physics, published in actual peer-reviewed journals by actual physicists, the experimental evidence is making this solution more and more untenable. What I can't understand are reactions like these:

1) :areyoucra
2) ...Well, yeah. That's why QFT isn't a theory of everything. It doesn't produce the results of GR (which works in the new-and-improved curved space) when used in... flat space? Duh? :shrug:
3) Time-symmetry is known not to be the case.
4) This is working the wrong way around. It should be asking how to derive observed quantities from QM, not what QM "really" corresponds to. Why should there be a reality apart from QM/QFT?

in which you disagree, as you have with just about every source I've cited, but apart from saying you disagree, or perhaps linking to wikipedia, you have shown little reason why your understanding of physics and the state of research in physics, is superior to, well...research in physics. Time-symmetry is not known "not to be the case", the problem with the "standard view" that we can reconstruct the macroscopic world out of QM doesn't seem to work unless we give up things like time-symmetry or causality, and a whole lot of the problems have to do with interpreting experiments because quantum mechanics deals with systems in a fundamentally different way than classical mechanics does.

Well, yeah. The requirement is that experimental data is validated, and since nobody has patented an ansible, I'm fairly confident in the stated belief that causality cannot be violated.
The experimental data is the problem (well, that and a whole lot of mechanics without theoretical support). The results are all agreed on. That isn't the problem. What you are fairly confident about is inconsistent with experimental data. Moreover, the physics community is well aware of this. The problem, however, is how to resolve the experimental data in such a way that we can explain why it shows causlity is violated.
 
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PolyHedral

Superabacus Mystic
To adopt your response to the problems all these physicists are so upset about, "so what?"
Uncomputable "models" aren't models - they don't predict.

The only difference here is that we can actually see that our models of cells are incomplete.
How do you distinguish an incomplete model from an accurate one with insufficiently accurate data? Either way, you'll get the wrong answer.

Thus we have a problem, namely that this is a completely inaccurate description of how experiments on quantum systems are done. We don't "set up the system into some state", because we have no "system". Or, alterantively, we have a system, but we never measure it. We only disturb it.
Despite my explicitly asking you to, you never compared this to the classical method. Doing a classical experiment, we set up the system so it does something under specific conditions, and observe what happens. The only difference AFAIK in quantum is that we need to observe more carefully, because the observations affect the system's evolution in a non-trivial way.

Also, "we never measure it. we only disturb it?" What? The difference is one, literally, of semantics. What observations count as "measurements" and which are "disturbances" are dependant on only what you want to achieve - they are physically the same phenomenon.

"The measurement problem or measurement paradox is a key issue for quantum theory. Measurement is the location of the unpredictability of outcomes, consistent with the quantum uncertainty relations; but it is not an outcome of standard quantum dynamics, although it is crucial to the theory.
What does that mean? It is not an "outcome?" What's an outcome? A predicted result? :shrug:

This is the measurement paradox: the process of measurement cannot be described by standard quantum dynamics."
Ellis, G. F. (2012). On the limits of quantum theory: Contextuality and the quantum–classical cut. Annals of Physics.
I don't believe him.
This eigenket equation says that if a measurement of the observable
342ab19abfe739d9cf814915cd005bd8.png
is made while the system of interest is in the state
db7e2cbe1b4b6b4335bea379fd5bfb15.png
, then the observed value of that particular measurement must return the eigenvalue
0cc175b9c0f1b6a831c399e269772661.png
with certainty. However, if the system of interest is in the general state
b26214ff4acdf0176c348d28d8c11e45.png
, then the eigenvalue
0cc175b9c0f1b6a831c399e269772661.png
is returned with probability
9a16dcaf45586665f1ec92214525d7a2.png


That looks like a description of measurement in standard QM to me. If he means the process, rather than the result of measurement, I personally think he's talking nonsense unless he can define what process that is. Because quantum mechanics involves particles bouncing around, and assigns no importance to whether or not a particular bounce is a "measurement."

Nor can we simply "solve" the problem by going where the math takes us. Because, as Leggett ("Realism and the physical world" Reports on Progress in Physics vol 71(2); 2008) showed, regardless of the formalisms themselves, it is the actual experiments which demonstrate that reality at the macroscopic level is inconsistent with that we associate with reality. Something has to go: either we alter some fundamental component of our understanding of physics and physical reality, like causality, the arrow of time, etc., or we follow Einstein and say quantum theory is simply flawed.
Are you sure that counterfactual definiteness isn't on that list of options? Because that's the one I'm fine with dropping.

Because this: is just not true. It wasn't exactly true in classical physics, but it is far less true (or simply false) in quantum physics. In modern physics, when dealing with quantum processes, quantum systems, quantum mechanics, etc., we don't "test by observation".
I suspect CERN wants a word, then. What was the LHC's job, if not to test by (indirect) observation?

In classical physics, we observed systems and constructed models, and tested these by further observations. In quantum mechanics, we do not observe systems. We only destroy them, and then try to infer whether we destroyed them in the "right way" somehow. Then we extrapolate models about the basic nature of all matter from the fact that we destoyed the systems we are talking about.
Destruction and observation of the system are synonymous. This is as dictated by quantum.

So sure, we can just act like the wavefunction is a function which allows us to make predictions about where we will find particles. And we did. Until this stopped working. It stopped working when Schrödinger's cat started appearing in actual experiments.
Schroedinger's Cat was specifically constructed to show collapse interpretations as absurd. If your interpretation of quantum theory is failing because of that, then you need to revise it in exactly the way Schroedinger thought you had to.

We devised notions like "wave collapse" and talked about some "vanishing h" which we drafted mostly out of thin air in the hopes that we could eventually use these to show how the classical world "emerged" out of the quantum world through "decoherence" or whatever.
Are you saying that a vanishing h does not produce (a superset of) Newtonian dynamics?

What I can't understand are reactions like these:
in which you disagree, as you have with just about every source I've cited, but apart from saying you disagree, or perhaps linking to wikipedia, you have shown little reason why your understanding of physics and the state of research in physics, is superior to, well...research in physics.
You'll notice that I actually agreed with the physics of the latter 3 papers, and only disagreed with the first on the grounds that their result is not reliably reproducible. The papers you are citing, while apparently sound, are not demonstrating your argument. I do not see the link between the papers you are citing and the argument you are making - for instance, you try to cite a paper on how QFT in flat space does not maintain compatibility with GTR, and extrapolate from that all quantum theory does not maintain causality.

That's nonsense. :shrug:

As for time-reversal asymmetry, it has directly been observed .

The experimental data is the problem (well, that and a whole lot of mechanics without theoretical support). The results are all agreed on. That isn't the problem. What you are fairly confident about is inconsistent with experimental data.
So show me the simplest set-up possible that can break causality.
 
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LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
As for time-reversal asymmetry, it has directly been observed .
3) Time-symmetry is known not to be the case.

So in order to demonstrate that T-symmetry is "known not to be the case", you link to a study which demonstrates, empirically, that it happens? Did you read the study? How did you interpret their statement that their measurements "constitute the first observation of T violation in any system through the exchange of initial and final states in transitions that can only be connected by a T-symmetry transformation."

Time-symmetry refers to a mathematical transformation which violates the "arrow of time". Time as we observe it, or experience it, is asymmetric. It only goes one way, and thus if an experiment (like the study you linked to) "violates time-reversal asymmetry" (which is what they did), such that only "a T-symmetry transformation" of initial and final states can their explain their results, it constitutes experimental support for time-symmetry.


Uncomputable "models" aren't models - they don't predict.

Yes, they do (or can). Because the model is "uncomputable" in that it shows what is being modelled is "uncomputable", but does this through a mathematical abstraction. In other words, what Rosen began and others have continued to show is that any model of an M-R system (metabolic-repair) can only have "uncomputable models" in that any full model, which precisely simulates the cell, is necessarily uncomputable. However, this is done by showing that their cannot be a reduction of the cell into component parts and the dynamics which govern them. The way this irreducibility is demonstrated is through mathematical abstractions that are in some sense conceptual representations of cellular processes. These representations are used all the time to model biosystems. It's just that within systems biology, they aren't merely understood as "approximations" but as holistic treatments of irreducibly complex systems. The models themselves can be used to predict. But only, like "quantum systems", through the construction of mathematical abstractions which correspond to conceptually-based approaches to the system.
 
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LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Despite my explicitly asking you to, you never compared this to the classical method. Doing a classical experiment, we set up the system so it does something under specific conditions, and observe what happens. The only difference AFAIK in quantum is that we need to observe more carefully, because the observations affect the system's evolution in a non-trivial way.

What system? I am comparing it to the classical method, but I'll try to be more explicit. In current quantum mechanics, when they "set up the system", they set up something which doesn't exist. They know it doesn't exist. It has no physical reality. Period. It cannot. It's not a physical system, it's not even a "quantum system" in that it does not correspond in any way to any physical reality at all. The actual quantum processes which happen as a result of their experimental set-up are deliberately not described, modelled, or "set-up" in terms of their quantum system, because their quantum system is a mathematical and deterministic abstraction, while the actual "quantum system" that "runs" as a result of their experimental set up is neither described by what they call the system, nor do they know in what way or ways it is not described, other than simply knowing it isn't.

What you want to do, it seems, is say "forget any physical interpretation of the wavefunction and all that formalism". Ok. Now you have no system. Every experiment and every set-up of every experiment means calling the formalisms the system. Otherwise they can't set-up the "sytem", run the "system", or "measure" the system.


This is what I'm talking about. Annals of Physics is a peer-reviewed journal. It isn't the top journal in physics, but it is regularly cited, used, and is considered by physicists everywhere to be a part of (and increasingly used as) physics literature. So, why would you not "believe him" because of a wikipedia article? Especially when your link doesn't in any way contradict him?
...while the system of interest is in the state...

That looks like a description of measurement in standard QM to me. If he means the process, rather than the result of measurement, I personally think he's talking nonsense unless he can define what process that is.
You are right, this is standard QM. So let me ask you, what is the "system" which we measure, such that we can observe it's "state"? It's the wavefunction formalism. That's what physicists mean by "system". They don't mean anything which has any known real-world existence. So, in classical mechanics, when did we measure the states of systems which don't exist?



Are you sure that counterfactual definiteness isn't on that list of options? Because that's the one I'm fine with dropping.
Really? You're fine with dropping just about everything remotely related to the scientific method? Just to be clear about what "dropping" this means (emphasis added):
"The argument presented here assumes the principle of counterfactual definiteness, i.e., that in any physical situation the result of any experiment which can be performed has a definite value." (p. 4 of "Nonlocal aspects of a quantum wave").

Counterfactual indefiniteness is what is used to assert that quantum mechanics violates causality.

I suspect CERN wants a word, then. What was the LHC's job, if not to test by (indirect) observation?

The problem is that either you have to drop the "observation" part completely (by saying the wavefunction is just a mathematical abstraction, when in physics it literally is the system, you are removing from observation the system itelf, as you can't observe a system which has no physical reality and never did), or you have can't say "what's wrong with just treating the whole thing as a mathematical abstraction?" You can't observe the "states", directly or indirectly, of mathematical abstractions.


Schroedinger's Cat was specifically constructed to show collapse interpretations as absurd. If your interpretation of quantum theory is failing because of that, then you need to revise it in exactly the way Schroedinger thought you had to.
It was designed to show that this interpretation created a problem between the relationship of quantum mechanics and reality. That's the entire point: namely, that the cat's fate is dependent not on the wave collapse, but on the superpositional principle. Because the trigger mechanism depends upon the superpositional principle of quantum mechanics and thus is both "triggered" and not "triggered" at the same time. By setting up the thought experiment in a way which tied this to the actual, macroscopic world, Schroedinger demonstrated the inherent conflict between quantum mechanics and macroscopic reality. The collapse part is only the second paradox. It is the superpositional state of a quantum system which allows the cat to be both alive and dead at the same time.

The problem, however, is that this was only a thought experiment in that the detection of quantum processes at the macroscopic level (like the interaction between the quantum system, the cat, and the box) did not yet exist. This is no longer true:
"In as far as [Schrödinger's cat] designates the quantum superposition of two macroscopically distinct states of a highly complex object, the molecules in our new experimental series are among the fattest Schrödinger cats realized to date. Schrödinger reasoned whether it is possible to bring a cat into a superposition state of being 'dead' and 'alive'. In our experiment, the superposition consists of having all 430 atoms simultaneously 'in the left arm' and 'in the right arm' of our interferometer, that is, two possibilities that are macroscopically distinct. The path separation is about two orders of magnitude larger than the size of the molecules."

from "Quantum interference of large organic molecules" Although we're still limited by the fundamental uncertainty of QM (and thus experiments like the above require things like an artificial isolation to allow experimental detection of quantum "states" of macroscopic molecules), through various different methods we have been able to detect either actual "cats" (the superpositional "in two locations at once" state of macroscopic molecules) or quantum processes like these in "classical" systems.

Are you saying that a vanishing h does not produce (a superset of) Newtonian dynamics?

I'm giving you multiple references to experiments which have showed this, as well as the literature on why this was a convenience at odds with actual theory.

You'll notice that I actually agreed with the physics of the latter 3 papers, and only disagreed with the first on the grounds that their result is not reliably reproducible.
To others, you just said "I don't see the problem" when the author(s) said "here's a problem". I've given you reviews, experimental studies, entire monographs on the nature of the measurement problem and QM experiments and how these are inconsistent with causality in one way or another (or just are), but your response has been to either just disagree, to (see above) link to a study which demonstrates the opposite of what you claim, or to link to wikipedia which talks about "quantum systems" in a way you have argued we should not.

The papers you are citing, while apparently sound, are not demonstrating your argument.

I cited a number of papers at once saying these are "like" one paper I cited which was quite explicit about causality. The problem, however, is that the reason I continue to cite these is to demonstrate that the "I don't see a problem" response you keep giving is because you seem to want two fundamentally contradictory things: first, to understand the wavefunction as just a mathematical abstraction, and second, to understand quantum systems as they are understood in e.g., the wikipedia article and everywhere else (as the very wavefunctions you want to abstract from physical reality, which means we can't possibily measure the system's state).


So show me the simplest set-up possible that can break causality.
The double-slit experiment and all variants. Again, until you start resolving the two contradictory things you want (to have a "quantum system" which you can observe the state of, but have wavefunctions which are just mathematical abstractions), how can you argue what experiments do or do not show? Especially when you are fine with "dropping" the essence of causality itself (counterfactual definiteness)?
 
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atanu

Member
Premium Member
And of course, as it still stands, freewill remains dead in the water. :dan:

Hello.

Is this a causally determined conclusion or a wise and a considered judgement?

I think we had discussed earlier (apparently without any effect whatsoever) that this question of Free Will vs. Causality must pertain to someone. Is that someone known or does that someone exist?

My two cents.
 
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PolyHedral

Superabacus Mystic
Time-symmetry refers to a mathematical transformation which violates the "arrow of time". Time as we observe it, or experience it, is asymmetric. It only goes one way, and thus if an experiment (like the study you linked to) "violates time-reversal asymmetry" (which is what they did), such that only "a T-symmetry transformation" of initial and final states can their explain their results, it constitutes experimental support for time-symmetry.
I was under the impression that T-symmetry, as would be expected from the term, refers to the laws being symmetric with respect to time - not y'know, the opposite of that.

Anyway, having established that QM is time-asymmetric... what were we talking about? :p

Because the model is "uncomputable" in that it shows what is being modelled is "uncomputable", but does this through a mathematical abstraction. In other words, what Rosen began and others have continued to show is that any model of an M-R system can only have "uncomputable models" in that any full model, which precisely simulates the cell, is necessarily uncomputable. However, this is done by showing that their cannot be a reduction of the cell into component parts and the dynamics which govern them.
Logically, there must be a smallest/least-complicated irreducible and uncomputable system. What is it?

This is what I'm talking about. Annals of Physics is a peer-reviewed journal. It isn't the top journal in physics, but it is regularly cited, used, and is considered by physicists everywhere to be a part of (and increasingly used as) physics literature. So, why would you not "believe him" because of a wikipedia article?
The article says, "the process of measurement cannot be described by standard quantum dynamics."
I linked to a description of measurement in standard quantum mechanics. Here's a better-formatted one. (on page 2) In what way does measurements being represented by specific operations on the wavefunction not contradict "measurement cannot be described by standard quantum dynamics?"

I don't believe him because what he said was apparently incorrect. :shrug:

That's what physicists mean by "system". They don't mean anything which has any known real-world existence. So, in classical mechanics, when did we measure the states of systems which don't exist?
In classical mechanics, we measure the state of systems. What "really" exists is not a question that can be answered except through the implication, "What should I detect?"

You can treat classical and quantum mechanics as two variants of the same thing: there is a blackbox, and data the blackbox generates in response to measurements. In both scenarios, we can model the black box internals with linear algebra and evolving state vectors and so on. The difference in the classical vs. quantum case is that we have such large volumes of classical measurements that we don't see it as a black box at all - it is "obvious" that the moving bodies and the velocities and so on are "really" there.

But really, there is no "real" in that sense - all formulations of the laws of physics that produce the same answers, i.e. model the black box correctly, are equivalent. Langrangian, Hamiltonian and Newtonian mechanics are all equally "real."

This is still so in quantum mechanics. The problematic part is the fact that observations now have a significant effect on the system's evolution, which seemingly prevents us seeing the "reality" of what's going on. ...But what reality are we hoping to find, exactly? In what way are the constructions of quantum mechanics not real, in exactly the same way that Lagrangian or Hamiltonian mechanics are "real"? Whether you use the Schroedinger/Dirac equations, or a path integral, or some field theory, they all produce the same answers - they all model what is "really" going on equally well.

(Unfortunately, the equivalence breaks down slightly, because to get visual "measurements" in Newtonian mechanics, you need to hack it to include massless billard-ball photons. However, this produces the correct result of measurements not noticeably affecting the results in classical systems.)

Really? You're fine with dropping just about everything remotely related to the scientific method? Just to be clear about what "dropping" this means (emphasis added):
"The argument presented here assumes the principle of counterfactual definiteness, i.e., that in any physical situation the result of any experiment which can be performed has a definite value." (p. 4 of "Nonlocal aspects of a quantum wave").
I agree entirely, because this is implied by the structure of quantum results: the predicted results of an experiment is a probability distribution, not a definite value.

Counterfactual indefiniteness is what is used to assert that quantum mechanics violates causality.
I thought the main thing being used to assert non-causality was the relativistic implication of entangled particles. That requires definiteness - there's no problem with splitting a wave-function across a spacelike interval. :p

The problem is that either you have to drop the "observation" part completely (by saying the wavefunction is just a mathematical abstraction, when in physics it literally is the system, you are removing from observation the system itelf, as you can't observe a system which has no physical reality and never did), or you have can't say "what's wrong with just treating the whole thing as a mathematical abstraction?" You can't observe the "states", directly or indirectly, of mathematical abstractions.
Well, no, you can't. Because the mathematical abstraction tells you you can't. :p

It was designed to show that this interpretation created a problem between the relationship of quantum mechanics and reality. That's the entire point: namely, that the cat's fate is dependent not on the wave collapse, but on the superpositional principle. Because the trigger mechanism depends upon the superpositional principle of quantum mechanics and thus is both "triggered" and not "triggered" at the same time. By setting up the thought experiment in a way which tied this to the actual, macroscopic world, Schroedinger demonstrated the inherent conflict between quantum mechanics and macroscopic reality. The collapse part is only the second paradox. It is the superpositional state of a quantum system which allows the cat to be both alive and dead at the same time.
There is no such conflict when using the Everett MWI interpretation - the cat does exist in a superposition until you observe it, or something that observed it. At which point you get entangled with it, and see a definite alive or dead. Everything you interact with from then on indirectly gets entangled with the cat, causing the superposition to spread throughout the universe at approximately the speed of light.

At no point does the superposition "collapse" - collapse isn't a thing.

I'm giving you multiple references to experiments which have showed this, as well as the literature on why this was a convenience at odds with actual theory.
How can a fact of pure mathematics be "a convenience?" I'm not making an argument that classical physics is equivalent to quantum (that'd be silly) but that quantum is a superset of classical physics. This is demonstrably true if one can derive the classical laws of physics from quantum mechanics. Making h vanish is a good approximation for this, since the length and energy domain of classical mechanics is so much larger than h.

To others, you just said "I don't see the problem" when the author(s) said "here's a problem". I've given you reviews, experimental studies, entire monographs on the nature of the measurement problem and QM experiments and how these are inconsistent with causality in one way or another (or just are), but your response has been to either just disagree, to (see above) link to a study which demonstrates the opposite of what you claim, or to link to wikipedia which talks about "quantum systems" in a way you have argued we should not.
All of the articles you've cited seem to be coming from the position that what we see is reality, and quantum has to eventually fit that reality. I take the reverse position, and thus don't agree that what they're pointing out as problems actually are.

I cited a number of papers at once saying these are "like" one paper I cited which was quite explicit about causality. The problem, however, is that the reason I continue to cite these is to demonstrate that the "I don't see a problem" response you keep giving is because you seem to want two fundamentally contradictory things: first, to understand the wavefunction as just a mathematical abstraction, and second, to understand quantum systems as they are understood in e.g., the wikipedia article and everywhere else (as the very wavefunctions you want to abstract from physical reality, which means we can't possibily measure the system's state).
I don't want to abstract the wavefunction. As you've probably guessed already, I'm of the opinion that, eventually, the universe is computer, and that it is computing something to produce reality as we know it. As far as any theory has told me, the universal wavefunction is that thing being computed - the discrete reality we see arises from that.

The double-slit experiment and all variants.
Elaborate please, preferably in maths. :D (The double-slit experiment is simple enough that I can follow the maths itself along.)
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Anyway, having established that QM is time-asymmetric... what were we talking about? :p

The fact that their study is an experimental finding showing this is not the case. That they observed a violation of time-reversal invariance (a reversal in time) that is not supposed to happen.

I was under the impression that T-symmetry, as would be expected from the term, refers to the laws being symmetric with respect to time - not y'know, the opposite of that.

T-symmetry is a violation of causality. It means that systems can go backwards or forwards in time. This is no problem if it's only a mathematical result one can do by manipulating equations, so long as actual systems cannot violate time asmmetry (or can only do so in trivial ways), but the experiment you linked to is not one of these. For causality:
-There has to be a local interaction in some region of space
-The "cause" must precede the effect

Lightcones and spacetime didn't change either, just the way they were described. A system which is time-symmetric is one which can run forwards or backwards in some "time-like" region. The authors include "violation" in their title because they observed time-reversal in a system that (according to modern physics) is not supposed to happen.


Logically, there must be a smallest/least-complicated irreducible and uncomputable system. What is it?

According to what logic and what model of complexity?

The article says, "the process of measurement cannot be described by standard quantum dynamics."
I linked to a description of measurement in standard quantum mechanics. Here's a better-formatted one. (on page 2) In what way does measurements being represented by specific operations on the wavefunction not contradict "measurement cannot be described by standard quantum dynamics?"
From your link above: "In addition, quantum mechanics involves a new postulate - the measurement postulate - that does not have a classical analogue." You asked for the difference, now you provided it. The reason that "measurement cannot be described by standard quantum dynamics" is because "measurement" in quantum mechanics means something totally different than it does in classical mechanics. In classical mechanics, to measure the state of a system in some way meant to do something to some physical system in such a way that one can observe some property of it. In quantum mechanics, the system has no physical reality. It's described by a model like Rosen's- a holistic conceptual version which is linked in an unknown way to whatever the actual physical system is

I don't believe him because what he said was apparently incorrect. :shrug:

It's just that nobody noticed? Or perhaps that descriptions of quantum measurement in quantum mechanics are, like your latest source said, completely different from what "measurement" means in classical mechanics (that's what "without any classical analogue" means; it's something that didn't exist in classical physics).

In classical mechanics, we measure the state of systems. What "really" exists is not a question that can be answered except through the implication, "What should I detect?"

In classical mechanics, we had systems. What we measured corresponded in some direct way to physical reality. Remember this
That doesn't explicitly tell us much about A. Is A a set of molecules? Is it a set of other cells? (In which case what are those? What's the numerical structure of a cell?)
These are questions about how a function relates to a physical system. What is mapped from what to what in a way we can say corresponds to physical characteristics or processes of the system (the cell) given this function? We can ask that about every single "quantum system" and never get an answer. The "function(s)" which map the system's state at one time to the state at another do not describe any state of any physical system. We do not know what is being mapped from what to what using these functions. The difference is that in QM this was done almost from the beginning (which is why Einstein, Bell, and others all hated it). We've always been talking about "systems" we can't observe/measure, and always known that "measurement" and "system" here were totally different than in classical physics. And this lengthy tradition, contrasted with those of biological models and Rosen's, hides the fact that as we can't observe anything physical, and described the system, it's variables, it's state, using only math from start to finish, we can appear to answer questions like "what's the state at time t?" only by changing what "measurement" and "system" mean.

But this is akin to putting some neuron in a properly set-up container, building a model of it which we know does not describe the actual cell, letting both the model and the actual neuron 'run", stopping both at some point, and saying "there's the state of the physical cell" by pointing at the model and never checking the "state" of the model against that of the neuron.

The difference in the classical vs. quantum case is that we have such large volumes of classical measurements that we don't see it as a black box at all - it is "obvious" that the moving bodies and the velocities and so on are "really" there.

No, the difference is that in one case we can observe our system, and so we have some idea what we are measuring. In QM, we don't have either systems or measurements in the classical sense. Quantum theory holds that quantum systems are fundamentally indeterministic (ontologically so). Quantum mechanics is "deterministic". This is because in QM, unlike in classical mechanics, the "system" is wholly, entirely, and completely a mathematical construct we call a "physical system" anyway. We then use some theory and these non-physical "physical systems" in terms of how classical observations, which cannot (according to quantum theory) actually be observations of quantum systems, are somehow "observations" of quantum systems (systems which we never had to begin with).
But really, there is no "real" in that sense - all formulations of the laws of physics that produce the same answers, i.e. model the black box correctly, are equivalent. Langrangian, Hamiltonian and Newtonian mechanics are all equally "real."

They are not. Nor are they treated as such. Physics is called "physics" for a reason. Not just because of the Greek (meaning, more or less, "what is" or "ontology" or "nature"), but because of English as well: we're trying to describe what's happening in the physical world with physical systems and observations of physical systems. QM changed all of that. Physics retained physical theories about quantum processes, but QM exists in opposition to these theories of quantum dynamics. It just side-steps this issue by never actually dealing with the dynamics of quantum systems. Of course, we don't actually talk like this, even though it's true. Because then we'd have to describe our "measurements" and experiments with something like this: "we have no system, we're just making some quantum processes happen and then, knowing that when we destroy whatever system these dynamics correponded to, we have no idea what the state of that system was at any time at all. So instead, we don't call that system anything. We pretend it isn't there. Instead of dealing with the system, we write down symbols and point saying "look, there's the system, and here is its state". Someone might ask "but, wait...you have a physical system, you are saying that the state is described by these values, but what do these values correspond to in that physical system?" But we won't answer them, because our "physical system" has no physical existence such that we can. We might say "well, it's sort of like classical waves", to which the curious questioner might respond "then why don't you treat it as such, instead of calling it a physical system with physical states?" But the only way we could answer this is by saying "well, because we have no idea how our description of the physical system or physical states correspond with anything physical. But we call it that so that when we publish papers it still looks like physics."
 
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LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
I agree entirely, because this is implied by the structure of quantum results: the predicted results of an experiment is a probability distribution, not a definite value.

That's not counterfactual indefiniteness. That's not even "quantum" counterfactual indefiniteness. Counterfactual indefiniteness is basically "If I don't look at the moon, it is not there". Better yet, this is what Schroedinger meant by the 2nd paradox of his "cat" thought experiment. Counterfactual definiteness states that the cat has a definite "dead" or "alive" state even if you don't look. Counterfactual indefiniteness says it has no such state. Also, I think you may be missing Schroedinger's point because you are using a common "shortened" version of the thought experiment which misses the fundamental point:
There is no such conflict when using the Everett MWI interpretation - the cat does exist in a superposition until you observe it, or something that observed it. At which point you get entangled with it, and see a definite alive or dead. Everything you interact with from then on indirectly gets entangled with the cat, causing the superposition to spread throughout the universe at approximately the speed of light.

At no point does the superposition "collapse" - collapse isn't a thing.

The thought experiment is usually simplified where the cat is just alive and dead until observed, as if this was somehow important to Schroedinger. It wasn't. The cat was trapped in a box with a vial of poison released by a the decay of an unstable atom. However, as the atom was described by the superposition state as both decayed and not decayed, the vial of poison was both released and not released, and thus a real, actual cat (not a metaphor) was both dead and not dead. That was a theoretical attack on the quantum-to-classical transition, and by transition I mean all the "vanishing h" stuff which is supposed to "get us" what we experience out of quantum theory, making everything explainable in terms of quantum theory. But in order to do this we described the mechanics of physical systems without physical reality, and hoped that despite the contradiction between theory and practice we'd be able to derive a quantum-to-classical transition. So far, all we've done is make that less and less possible by showing how macroscopic, classical "systems" can be in two places at once, or that QM is needed to explain vital macroscopic biological processes. However, as QM doesn't deal with physical systems, this is a problem.

I thought the main thing being used to assert non-causality was the relativistic implication of entangled particles. That requires definiteness - there's no problem with splitting a wave-function across a spacelike interval. :p

Counterfactual definiteness requires the states of a quantum system as described by some wavefunction(s) to have at all times a definite value. Counterfacutal indefinitness does not, but this means that I can't assert anything about particles, because as soon as I do, I have violated counterfactual indefiniteness. I am forcing a definite value where there should not be one, and thus my measurement is meaningless. Hence "counterfactual" definiteness: If I had measured the photons coming out of the slits, instead of the measuring the pattern on the detector, I would have measured what was there in such a way that it could not be anywhere else. Counterfactual indefiniteness states "If I measure a quantum state here, it could be anywhere else, and at no time is my measurement value describing anything quantum because it forces something which is inherently indefinite to give me a false value." With counterfactual definiteness, our measurements are meaningful, but we can't say anything about them (because we can no longer describe them using an indefinite "system". Without it, the system is meaningful, but the measurements are not. It wouldn't be a measurement problem if it was as trivial as you seem to think [important note: when I say "seem to think/say/etc", I intend it to mean "I am not sure if this is what you mean, but it seems like it is"]

Well, no, you can't. Because the mathematical abstraction tells you you can't. :p
In physics, they aren't "mathematical abstractions" but are physical systems with physical states. Of course, we have no idea what these really are, or what the physical system really is, so we only have mathematical abstractions. But as the mathematical abstractions allow us to do things like violate superluminal restraints, nonlocality, etc,. with what we are saying are "physical systems", we run into what is an increasing problem (increasing because we are now, unlike in most of the 20th century, describing fundamental aspects of biological systems at the macroscopic level using QM).

But what reality are we hoping to find, exactly? In what way are the constructions of quantum mechanics not real, in exactly the same way that Lagrangian or Hamiltonian mechanics are "real"?

Good question. I build a model like Rosen's or one used in systems biology. It's a model of a cell. If I am using Hamiltonian mechanics, I try to describe the dynamics of the cell in terms of the "bodies" or parts of it. If I can't, I say my model is an approximation.

We don't do anything like that in QM. Instead, we build the model, run the model, measure the model, and then say it's physical. When asked "in what way do the physical states of the physical system correspond with, well, a physical system" we answer "don't ask." Because we determined the whole thing in advance, which runs completely contrary to the entire nature of the very quantum theory we're trying to explain. However, if we admitted this, we'd have to admit that we never "measured" anything. we set up our system such that if we get what we expected, or don't, it doesn't matter. "What we expected" the state to be doesn't correspond to the state of the physical system in the first place.


they all model what is "really" going on equally well.

All equally poorly. And it isn't just about
visual "measurements" in Newtonian mechanics.

Sure, we can't see it. But we can't see lot's of things in classical mechanics which we can measure (we can't see velocity). And when we describe a classical system in terms of things like our measurements of velocity, angular momentum, etc., we can say what is travelling at x speed in b direction. In quantum mechanics, we not only can't say what what we are describing when we talk about the eigenstates of the physical system, or any "state" of the physical system, we also can't say anything about the physical system, because what we call the physical system was never physical to begin with.

hack it to include massless billard-ball photons
Hack what? The system? We don't. We don't deal with the system directly or indirectly. We construct one without physical reality, so we can't possibly "hack it" into anything.
However, this produces the correct result of measurements not noticeably affecting the results in classical systems.
The "correct" result has nothing to do with measurements, because we never measured any physical system. We just called it that.


Elaborate please, preferably in maths. :D (The double-slit experiment is simple enough that I can follow the maths itself along.)
I have no doubt. But the math seems to be the problem here. Consider this:

f: A -> B

"where f is the process that takes input A and output B...The system Rosen uses for an example is the Metabolism-Repair or [M,R] system. The process, f, in this case stands for the entire metabolism going on in an organism...the mapping, f, has a very special nature. It is a functional component of the system we are developing. A functional component has many interesting attributes. First of all, it exists independent of the material parts that make it possible. Reductionism has taught us that every thing in a real system can be expressed as a collection of material parts. This is not so in the case of functional components"

I can describe this functional process as formally as you wish, certainly equal to any wavefunctions formal nature. I can make the model of the system as mathematically rigourous as any quantum system in QM. But what I can't do is reduce either system, or the states of either system, to parts other than those I describe mathematically and only mathematically.
 
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atanu

Member
Premium Member
And of course, as it still stands, freewill remains dead in the water. :dan:


Hello.

Is this a causally determined conclusion or a wise and a considered judgement?

I think we had discussed earlier (apparently without any effect whatsoever) that this question of Free Will vs. Causality must pertain to someone. Is that someone known or does that someone exist?

My two cents.

Yes. :D

Known how/in what way?, and yes.


Hello PolyHedral

1. Can you kindly explain your double Yes-s (highlighted in red above)?

2. The response to your question "Known how/in what way?" is below:
When someone says "I have fee will", what is meant by the "I"? Is the "I" known independent of name-and form attributes?

Can a bunch of attributes ever have any free will?

OTOH, can a causally determined intellect (an inevitable inference of the determinism) assert that "I do not have free will"?

In my understanding, this question of 'free will vs. determininsm' is meaningless until the question "Free Will for whom?" is truly resolved.
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
I somehow missed the responses below in my responses above. My apologies.

How can a fact of pure mathematics be "a convenience?"
Because it is not pure mathematics. If you recall when this came up:
Perfect example (link): "It is generally believed that classical mechanics is the contraction of quantum mechanics in some appropriate limit of vanishing h. Thus in principle every classical observable...is the contraction of some quantum observable. However, quantum observables are generally constructed by the quantization of classical observables...Obviously this introduces circularity when one invokes the correspondence principle. This is unsatisfactory if quantum mechanics were to be internally coherent and autonomous from classical mechanics." This study also gives an intro to the quantum-classical correspondence problem and quasiclassical systems, but see here for more detail

The idea of autonomy is that classical mechanics need not exist at all, as we can derive any classical result from quantum mechanics. However, the "vanishing h" approach (quantization) does this mathematically but depends upon classical means not only to "observe" or "measure" but at every step of the process except for the abstraction of a quantum system from any physical processes, which would cause this means to fail. We can only get the desired "derived" classical results if we assume they are there to begin with. So that's what we do, and it is again part of every experiment in quantum mechanics, because the actual quantum processes are produced via "classical" experimental apparati, the "quantum system" is a mere mathematical model which in some unknown way is supposed to be the "system" producing the quantum processes we ensured would take place, but only observe abstracted from the very system of which they were a part, and we destroy this system through "classical" observation. The only part of the whole process which is "quantum" is deliberately not described, modelled, or in any other way represented such that we could actually ensure that some process of "decoherence' or whatever got us our "classical" experience from quantum reality.


I'm not making an argument that classical physics is equivalent to quantum (that'd be silly) but that quantum is a superset of classical physics. This is demonstrably true if one can derive the classical laws of physics from quantum mechanics.
Only if one can derive the classical laws without assuming that they first exist. This approach:

Making h vanish is a good approximation for this, since the length and energy domain of classical mechanics is so much larger than h.
doesn't. It assumes the classical laws in order to derive them.

All of the articles you've cited seem to be coming from the position that what we see is reality, and quantum has to eventually fit that reality. I take the reverse position, and thus don't agree that what they're pointing out as problems actually are.
The various sources I've cited aren't saying that "what we see is reality" and trying to make quantum "fit that reality", but recognizing that the solution we've been using so far, to imagine that our "vanishing h" or decoherence can be used to derive classical physics from quantum reality not only has no theoretical basis (and never really did), but is no contradicted by experimental results from numerous studies:
"An example of the latter stance is the Copenhagen interpretation of quantum mechanics, which postulates a fundamental dualism between a microscopic “quantum” domain and a macroscopic “classical” realm.
Today, our view has changed drastically. On the one hand, quantum effects have been observed in the laboratory far beyond the microscopic domain. Researchers have created mesoscopic and macroscopic "Schrödinger kittens” such as superpositions of microampere currents flowing in opposite directions and interference patterns for massive molecules composed of dozens of carbon atoms"

from Schlosshauer's Decoherence and the Quantum-to-Classical Transition (The Frontiers Collection; Springer, 2007)

The idea was that quantum processes like superpostion states, entanglements, etc., somehow "decohered" so rapidly beyond the subatomic level that their effects were never felt. However, through studies such as the one I linked to on an entire molecule in 2 places at once show that if we use some very sophisticated equipment, we can actually get "closer" to this assumed "nearly instant" decoherence process and find that it isn't what either Bohr, Einstein, Schrödinger, etc. expected or hoped for: Bohr et al. with the imagined "divide" which caused the quantum realm to exist in such a way that it superposition states really were these, but that the classical world could be "recovered" or derived somehow from quantum theory because these quantum processes were so delicate, and Einstein, Schrödinger, Bell, etc., who thought the idea that quantum formalism described any physical reality at all was insanity. It was counterfactual indefiniteness.
 
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