Muffled
Jesus in me
Consider Colossians 1:15, 17 again; John 17:5, 24; Revelation 3:4.
I believe I always consider scripture and I believe those change nothing but you are welcome to reason out the point if you can.
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Consider Colossians 1:15, 17 again; John 17:5, 24; Revelation 3:4.
Zechariah 3:8… “Soon I am going to bring my servant, the Branch.”
Which one is Jesus: Joshua or the Branch?
So which answer are you giving?Joshua is the name of Jesus which is why he is a sign for the Branch.
But what exactly is the difference?I believe Idolatry sets the Trinity as three different Spirits but the Bible reveals there is only one in the Trinity.
But what exactly is the difference?
So which answer are you giving?
I guess I was hoping for something a little more detailed than this. It's fine though, thanks for trying.In the Trinity there is one God, in three Spirits there are three Gods.
God is a plural in the ECHAD of himself, as FIRST/LORD/FATHER, and LAST/Lord/Son, in TIME, PLACE, ORDER, or RANK. one person, one Spirit/God in Diversity.So my question is: why does "God" refer to himself in plural? (Let us create...)
I did some research, and the Trinity isn't even mentioned in the Bible (at least not as "Trinity", there are hints of it). Why would a "God" that claims to be only God refer to what looks like others like him (as if he was one of many; "our likeness")?
*I'm an atheist (just in case)
No, echad is singular in the way that it always is.God is a plural in the ECHAD of himself, as FIRST/LORD/FATHER, and LAST/Lord/Son, in TIME, PLACE, ORDER, or RANK. one person, one Spirit/God in Diversity.
101G.
Again, just in case you forgot, in the shema, echad is not a unity of plurals. It simply means one. NOT three in one.God is a plural in the ECHAD of himself, as FIRST/LORD/FATHER, and LAST/Lord/Son, in TIME, PLACE, ORDER, or RANK. one person, one Spirit/God in Diversity.
101G.
ARE you sure? are ordinal numbers plural in an Equal Share of ONE?No, echad is singular in the way that it always is.
we must disagree. according to the Mickelson's Enhanced Strong's Dictionaries of the Greek and Hebrew Testaments, H259 אֶחָד 'echad (ech-awd') adj.Again, just in case you forgot, in the shema, echad is not a unity of plurals. It simply means one. NOT three in one.
What does that even mean?ARE you sure? are ordinal numbers plural in an Equal Share of ONE?
101G
you have highlighted "first." are you maintaining that no one is translating Deut 6:4 correctly, that it should be "The LORD is God, the LORD is first"???we must disagree. according to the Mickelson's Enhanced Strong's Dictionaries of the Greek and Hebrew Testaments, H259 אֶחָד 'echad (ech-awd') adj.
1. (properly) united, i.e. one.
2. (as an ordinal) first.
[a numeral from H258]
KJV: a, alike, alone, altogether, and, any(-thing), apiece, a certain, (dai-)ly, each (one), + eleven, every, few, first, + highway, a man, once, one, only, other, some, together.
Root(s): H258.
note definition #2.
101G,
I certainly do not believe in a trinity. But elohim refers also to a plurality. Not a trinity either.Again, just in case you forgot, in the shema, echad is not a unity of plurals. It simply means one. NOT three in one.
No, it is a noun that is sometimes singular and sometimes plural. When in doubt, check the verb. If it is in the singular, the noun is in the singular.I certainly do not believe in a trinity. But elohim refers also to a plurality. Not a trinity either.
elohim means powers and is used to refer to quite a few things: human judges, angels, pagan pantheons, and the One True God. Sometimes it is plural and sometimes it is singular. You have to look at the context to know whether it is singular or plural. For example if it uses a verb in the singular tense, then it is singular. Let me give you an example:I certainly do not believe in a trinity. But elohim refers also to a plurality. Not a trinity either.
The title elohim was given because HE, the Almighty, being the God of Gods, not a multiple, but the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Please note the following, Maimonides said: "I must premise that every Hebrew [now] knows that the term Elohim is a homonym, and denotes God, angels, judges, and the rulers of countries, ..."No, it is a noun that is sometimes singular and sometimes plural. When in doubt, check the verb. If it is in the singular, the noun is in the singular.
I see the Chabad translation of Psalm 110:1 which just is off the beam. Sorry.elohim means powers and is used to refer to quite a few things: human judges, angels, pagan pantheons, and the One True God. Sometimes it is plural and sometimes it is singular. You have to look at the context to know whether it is singular or plural. For example if it uses a verb in the singular tense, then it is singular. Let me give you an example:
Exodus 7:1
The Lord said to Moses, "See! I have made you a lord over Pharaoh, and Aaron, your brother, will be your speaker. אוַיֹּ֤אמֶר יְהֹוָה֙ אֶל־משֶׁ֔ה רְאֵ֛ה נְתַתִּ֥יךָ אֱלֹהִ֖ים לְפַרְעֹ֑ה וְאַֽהֲרֹ֥ן אָחִ֖יךָ יִֽהְיֶ֥ה נְבִיאֶֽךָ
That is the Stone translation, a well loved Jewish translation. You can see that the word "lord" is a translation of elohim (אֱלֹהִ֖ים). It is singular because Moses is singular.
Psalm 110:1 is completely off center when it comes to proper translation at chabad.org. I'm a bit taken aback at the improper translation, surprised if you will, nevertheless that's the way it is.No, it is a noun that is sometimes singular and sometimes plural. When in doubt, check the verb. If it is in the singular, the noun is in the singular.