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rosends

Well-Known Member
God son according to the Spirit, I asked was he not David son according to the flesh., yes or no before u answer read 2 John 1:7. now also, if he was God son why u don't believe him?
You are kidding, right? "according to the spirit"? That's not a thing, unless you want to say that he was a son symbolically, because the biblical text says that about angels, David, Solomon and all Jews.
King Solomon:

I Chronicles 22:9-10

Behold, a son shall be born to you [David],...his name shall be Solomon....He shall build a house for My Name; he shall be a son to Me, and I will be a Father to him, and I will establish his royal throne in Israel forever.

Angels:

Job 1:6

Now there was a day when the sons of G-d came to present themselves before the L-rd, and Satan also came among them.

King David:

Psalms 2:7

I [David] will tell of the decree of the L-rd. He said to me: "You are My son today I have begotten you."

Israel:

Exodus 4:22

And you shall say to Pharaoh: Thus says the L-rd: "Israel is My son, My firstborn."

Hosea 11:1

When Israel was a child, then I loved him, and out of Egypt I called My son.

and why would I read 2 John anything. That text is meaningless to me.

post scripture to your claim, book chapter and verse please.
you want me to post scripture saying he was from Joseph's line? That's your job. His father was named Joseph according to your books, right?
but everyone else broke the commandments.
So the following are 2 conclusions I draw from this response:
1. you accept that he sinned
2. because others sinned, that makes it acceptable.
ERROR. no third temple, for all the people will be gathered in him, not the Land Israel. and as for who is a Jew, Romans 2:29 "But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God."
There are prophecies of a 3rd temple. Quoting from Romans is silly (I mean, I could quote from Romans 11 to make a point about how I don't need belief to be saved, but I won't). I gave you the required prophecy left unfulfilled. You can't deny it so you move to something else...sad.

David and Saul? let's aee.1 Samuel 16:13 "Then Samuel took the horn of oil, and anointed him in the midst of his brethren: and the Spirit of the LORD came upon David from that day forward. So Samuel rose up, and went to Ramah." 1 Samuel 16:14 "But the Spirit of the LORD departed from Saul, and an evil spirit from the LORD troubled him."

now, KING JESUS, Luke 4:17 "And there was delivered unto him the book of the prophet Esaias. And when he had opened the book, he found the place where it was written," Luke 4:18 "The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised," Luke 4:19 "To preach the acceptable year of the Lord." Luke 4:20 "And he closed the book, and he gave it again to the minister, and sat down. And the eyes of all them that were in the synagogue were fastened on him." Luke 4:21 "And he began to say unto them, This day is this scripture fulfilled in your ears."
How does your selection from Luke change the fact that according to what you cited from 1 Samuel, oil was used to anoint?
well, copy and paste a few. and he did complete his mission.
go here and whine to them.
And, no, as I showed, there were unfulfilled prophecies so he failed.
Personal opinion? want work with me. scripture only. a plurality of one is bible based. and it's right under your nose in Genesis 1:1.
Your repeating yourself doesn't turn nonsense into reality. There is no such thing as a "plurality of one."
 

dybmh

ויהי מבדיל בין מים למים
not to get into your conversation, there is only ONE person speaking in Genesis 1

and the Lord Jesus confirm this

101G.
agreed :) and maybe it's a silly question. Sometimes I ask silly questions, but I prefer to be clear on each person's view rather than trying to guess.

so, to be clear, who do you think is speaking in Gen 1? Who is the creator?
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
Not in the Godhead,
So you are making a special pleading with no proof.

How IGNORANT are you of the Scriptures. LISTEN and learn. Genesis 1:1 "In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth." see the term "beginning", it's the Hebrew word,
H7225 רֵאשִׁית re'shiyth (ray-sheeth') n-f.
1. the first, in place, time, order or rank.
2. (specifically) a firstfruit.

[from the same as H7218]
KJV: beginning, chief(-est), first(-fruits, part, time), principal thing.
Root(s): H7218
Yes, as I said, the word there is the ordinal related one. Not echad.

notice definition #1 the "FIRST", why First? because H430 אֱלֹהִים 'elohiym (el-o-heem') n-m. here in Genesis 1:1 is the [plural of H433 אֱלוֹהַּ 'elowahh (el-o'-ah) n-m. let's see the difference.
You realize that the word in Genesis is not "raysheet" but "b'raysheet" and that prefix changes the meaning, right? So, no it doesn't mean "first" unless you want to say that the verse means "first God created..." It means "beginning" because it happened at the beginning This refers to the process of creation, not God so you can't use it to prove anything about God's identity.

H430 אֱלֹהִים 'elohiym (el-o-heem') n-m.
אֱלֹהֵי 'elohiy (el-o-hee') [alternate plural]
1. (literally) supreme ones.
2. (hence, in the ordinary sense) gods.
3. (specifically, in the plural, especially with the article) the Supreme God (i.e. the all supreme).
4. (sometimes) supreme, used as a superlative.
5. (occasionally, by way of deference) supreme magistrates, the highest magistrates of the land.
6. (also) the supreme angels (entities of unspecified type).
[plural of H433]
KJV: angels, X exceeding, God (gods)(-dess, -ly), X (very) great, judges, X mighty.
Root(s): H433
Compare: H5945, H7706, H8199, H4397

see it? the [plural of H433]

H433 אֱלוֹהַּ 'elowahh (el-o'-ah) n-m.
אֱלֹהַּ 'eloahh (el-o'-ah) [shortened (rarely)]
1. one with supreme strength and ability.
2. the Supreme Being, God the Creator, Yahweh by name.
3. a supreme entity, a god-like creature (that is, one of God's supreme creations, or one of man's inventions).
[probably prolonged (emphat.) from H410]
KJV: God, god.
Root(s): H410

u better start reading tour bible with the Holy Spirit ........... (smile). :eek: YIKES!
you don't understand how Hebrew works, right? So you rely on Christian interpretations without question. In Hebrew, the berb has to agree with the noun, so if the noun is in a form which can be plural or singular, you check the verb. In Gen 1:1 (and in all cases where the word is used to apply to God) the verb is in the singular. You take your Brown and whatever, and I'll stick with basic Hebrew grammar and experts like Nachmanides.

You should start reading your bible with your brain.
 

101G

Well-Known Member
You are kidding, right? "according to the spirit"? That's not a thing, unless you want to say that he was a son symbolically, because the biblical text says that about angels, David, Solomon and all Jews.
King Solomon:

I Chronicles 22:9-10

Behold, a son shall be born to you [David],...his name shall be Solomon....He shall build a house for My Name; he shall be a son to Me, and I will be a Father to him, and I will establish his royal throne in Israel forever.

Angels:

Job 1:6

Now there was a day when the sons of G-d came to present themselves before the L-rd, and Satan also came among them.

King David:

Psalms 2:7

I [David] will tell of the decree of the L-rd. He said to me: "You are My son today I have begotten you."

Israel:

Exodus 4:22

And you shall say to Pharaoh: Thus says the L-rd: "Israel is My son, My firstborn."

Hosea 11:1

When Israel was a child, then I loved him, and out of Egypt I called My son.

and why would I read 2 John anything. That text is meaningless to me.
all of that was useless. listen and Learn, Psalms 132:11 "The LORD hath sworn in truth unto David; he will not turn from it; Of the fruit of thy body will I set upon thy throne."
the fruit of David body is Mary. by birth of the Flesh, he has LEGAL RIGHT to the Throne. understand the Lord's geology is a LEGAL ONE by sheer birth-right.

and the fulfilling of Psalms 132:11, is the birth of Christ. Romans 1:1 "Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God," Romans 1:2 "(Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,)" Romans 1:3 "Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;" Romans 1:4 "And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead:"
you want me to post scripture saying he was from Joseph's line? That's your job. His father was named Joseph according to your books, right?
ok, my Job, listen and learn. Luke 3:23 "And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli," REPROVED
So the following are 2 conclusions I draw from this response:
1. you accept that he sinned
2. because others sinned, that makes it acceptable.
your conclusion. not mine.
There are prophecies of a 3rd temple. Quoting from Romans is silly (I mean, I could quote from Romans 11 to make a point about how I don't need belief to be saved, but I won't). I gave you the required prophecy left unfulfilled. You can't deny it so you move to something else...sad.
for the Last time, Jesus the Lord GOD almighty is the TEMPLE.
How does your selection from Luke change the fact that according to what you cited from 1 Samuel, oil was used to anoint?
the OIL is the Spirit himself. read Isaiah 61:1
And, no, as I showed, there were unfulfilled prophecies so he failed.
as I been saying, post them.
Your repeating yourself doesn't turn nonsense into reality. There is no such thing as a "plurality of one."
as I said, personal Opinions do not count I used scriptures.
and once again right at Genesis 1:1 is the very First example of God's plurality of one. see I give scripture, not personal opinions'

101`G.
 

101G

Well-Known Member
agreed :) and maybe it's a silly question. Sometimes I ask silly questions, but I prefer to be clear on each person's view rather than trying to guess.

so, to be clear, who do you think is speaking in Gen 1? Who is the creator?
first thanks for the reply, and no question is silly in search for the truth. your answer.. JESUS as the Ordinal First. and here's why I say this we all KNOW that the Lord Jesus don't LIE, correct, listen to what he said, Matthew 19:3 "The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?" Matthew 19:4 "And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,"
he here is God, for Mark who records the same conversation confirm this truth that God is a "HE" a single person who made the male and the Female in the beginning. Mark 10:6 "But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female."

so the HE in Matthews 19:4 is the ONE person God in Mark 10:6. notice the Lord Jesus said, it is written. well where is it written? in the very next verse after Genesis 1:26, verse 27. Genesis 1:27 "So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them." THERE IT IS BRIGHT AS DAY, GOD IS A "HE" SINGLE PERSON who created Male and Female in the beginning.

Now the Million Dollard question is why the Scripture have God saying "Let US and OUR"...... (this is too easy). I will give the answer later, but let a few of the expert here take a stab at it first.

we know from Mouth of the Lord Jesus, (who Cannot LIE), said he, God, ONE PERSON, made the Male and the Female. and Isaiah 44:24 completely eliminates anyone else, including angels. "Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;" and alone means, having no one else present:so he didn't go through anyone either

we suggest one re-read my post for clarity.

101G.
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
all of that was useless. listen and Learn, Psalms 132:11 "The LORD hath sworn in truth unto David; he will not turn from it; Of the fruit of thy body will I set upon thy throne."
the fruit of David body is Mary. by birth of the Flesh, he has LEGAL RIGHT to the Throne. understand the Lord's geology is a LEGAL ONE by sheer birth-right.
132:11 says that a male descendant of David will be the future king, so Mary is irrelevant to this verse. If you have any doubt, just read 132:12. Using a Christian text to validate the Christian interpretation is self-serving and intellectually dishonest. By the wat, if you look at 132:12 it also says that the royal line would continue through sons. Jesus had no sons. So he couldn't have been the one referred to.
ok, my Job, listen and learn. Luke 3:23 "And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli," REPROVED
So he was the son of Joseph (as I said) and therefore not the son of God. Oh wait, you invented this idea of "spiritual" son which, as I showed, would then apply to any Jew.
your conclusion. not mine.
If your response when I point out that Jesus sinned is that everybody sinned, then you are not denying my claim, and indicating that everyone's status is relevant to contextualize Jesus' sins. What other conclusion would you draw?
for the Last time, Jesus the Lord GOD almighty is the TEMPLE.
Jesus is dead and the temple is a building. God is not a building.
the OIL is the Spirit himself. read Isaiah 61:1
Yes, Isaiah speaks of himself as having been anointed, but he specifies that that "anointing" was to perform the acts of a prophet, not to make him a viable candidate for priest or king role. If you want to claim that Jesus was anointed in this same way then that's great -- it specifically invalidates any claim to any role other than prophet. Read Psalms 105:15 to see that prophets are called anointed.
as I been saying, post them.
here are 4 that were not fulfilled, making Jesus a false messianic claimant.
-He must build the Third Temple (Ezekiel 37:26-28)
-He must gather all the Jews back to the Land of Israel (Is. 43:5-6)
- He must usher in an era of world peace and bring an end to hatred, oppression, suffering and disease (Is. 2:4)
- He must spread the knowledge of the G-d of Israel, uniting the entire world as one (Zechariah 14:9)
as I said, personal Opinions do not count I used scriptures.
and once again right at Genesis 1:1 is the very First example of God's plurality of one. see I give scripture, not personal opinions'

101`G.
you pointed to a verse that doesn't say anything like what you claim. I showed how the words don't mean what you claim and you just stamp your feet and repeat the same nonsense.
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
first thanks for the reply, second a misunderstanding on your and many others part. is that GREATER in quality, or quantity. while in a G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') state in natural flesh.

I will make this as short as I can.

This verse in question have been taken out of context for way to long, and grossly misunderstood. as the word say, in all thy getting get understanding. the word, "GREATER", here in this verse is not the word GREAT, but, "GREATER", it's an Adjective, as used here, and not an Adverb, this is very important. the word GREATER is the Greek word G3187 meizon (meid'-zone) adj.
1. larger (specially, in age)
{literally or figuratively}
[irregular comparative of G3173]
KJV: elder, greater(-est), more Root(s): G3173

Dictionary.com as an Adjective, (of a city) considered with the inclusion of the outer suburbs: Greater London. here, the definitions is indicating quantity, (MORE), instead of quality, (SUPERIOR).
quantity: "an exact or specified amount or measure". look at these capitalize words above real good and let's get an understanding.
What did Jesus mean, "The Father is Greater than I", (The Father is Greater than I)
Greater: G3187 meizon (meid'-zone), quality, or quantity. in the book of Romans 12:3 it states, "For I say, through the grace given unto me, to every man that is among you, not to think of himself more highly than he ought to think; but to think soberly, according as God hath dealt to every man the measure of faith". this verse gives us the understanding of quantity, and quality. every man is the same, (quality), no man is superior to another, so there's no rank. also, as with MALES and FEMALES in the kingdom of GOD. the same Spirit is in every man/female. and every man/female is given the same amount or the same quantity of Faith. so likewise, as the same Spirit that manifest in that fleshly body, the nature of the Spirit did not change in quality, only the quantity is limited to that one body, other words his Omni attributes was limited. let’s look at this in John the 14th. chapter. here, the Lord Jesus is speaking of the work of salvation. as the Spirit was in Christ, (the flesh), the man, he was limited, by that fleshly body with BLOOD. the Lord Jesus didn't go into all the world while he was here on earth in flesh and blood. he was limited in his work of salvation, because of that body he was in. but to see this clearly, watch the WORKS and how it is used. John 14:12 "Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me, the works that I do shall he do also; and greater works than these shall he do; because I go unto my Father". see that word "greater" here in verse 12. it is the same word, "greater", Jesus uses in verse 28. wait a minute, is Jesus saying that men who believe is GREATER than him in power, (quality), as we been led to assume what greater means? NO. so what is the Lord Jesus really saying, as I have said, GREATER, have several meaning, depending on how you used it, in context or out of context, but let the bible explain itself. with that said, now we are seeing the real use of the word, in context meaning, greater as in quantity, and not in quality. greater used as an adjective, it means, "more" as in more believers to do the SAME quality of work, because it is the Lord who do the work. so now the work he is doing will be a greater number, as in them/us doing the same quality of work he was doing as an individual. more, or greater in quantity, not in quality, because he said, John 14:12 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me, the works that I do shall he do also; and greater works, (there it is), than these shall he do; because I go unto my Father". so we who believe will do the SAME works, but now we have millions of Jesus doing the same quality of works, so greater here means more.

and because he goes to his "Father"/His own diversified Spirit, now he is glorified in the Spirit, and is poured out unto all believers. and now Glorified in the Father/Spirit, now he can be in all believers doing the work, whereas in a fleshly body in a G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') state he could not.

Hope that help, this is the short answer.

101G
Without getting into a big debate here, there is no denying that Jesus said the Father in greater than he. So if you bought a cake and liked it very much you might ask the person who made it. And he might introduce you to the baker. And the baker could say, "Thank you for the compliment, but I must tell you I learned everything I know from my mentor and teacher...he knows more than I do and taught me what I know. I can only tell you what he taught me."
 

dybmh

ויהי מבדיל בין מים למים
first thanks for the reply, and no question is silly in search for the truth. your answer.. JESUS as the Ordinal First. and here's why I say this we all KNOW that the Lord Jesus don't LIE, correct, listen to what he said, Matthew 19:3 "The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?" Matthew 19:4 "And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,"
he here is God, for Mark who records the same conversation confirm this truth that God is a "HE" a single person who made the male and the Female in the beginning. Mark 10:6 "But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female."

so the HE in Matthews 19:4 is the ONE person God in Mark 10:6. notice the Lord Jesus said, it is written. well where is it written? in the very next verse after Genesis 1:26, verse 27. Genesis 1:27 "So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them." THERE IT IS BRIGHT AS DAY, GOD IS A "HE" SINGLE PERSON who created Male and Female in the beginning.

Now the Million Dollard question is why the Scripture have God saying "Let US and OUR"...... (this is too easy). I will give the answer later, but let a few of the expert here take a stab at it first.

we know from Mouth of the Lord Jesus, (who Cannot LIE), said he, God, ONE PERSON, made the Male and the Female. and Isaiah 44:24 completely eliminates anyone else, including angels. "Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;" and alone means, having no one else present:so he didn't go through anyone either

we suggest one re-read my post for clarity.

101G.
I like this verse from Isaiah which clarifies in my mind the absolute unity without division of the creator Y-H-V-H. Please note the words: "Yahweh makes all alone".

Isaiah 44:24

Screenshot_20221224_203206.jpg
 
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YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
The heavenly court is made up of spiritual beings such as angels. It is not some trinity of God.
The heavenly court is not a trinity of some sort, that is correct.
So God the Almighty said, "Let US make man in OUR image..." (Genesis 1:26) There's a lot there. Reading many of those verses again -- from Genesis 1:1 through the chapter, I reflected there are so many eye-opening things to consider. First, darkness on the surface of the deep waters (verse 2), then God said "Let there be light (and there was light). Naturally there's more, lots more to understand, I hope you have a good day.
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
I'm sad that you didn't bring a precise name. But if you don't want to answer, I won't push.
:) Good. :)
Names can be pronounced differently in different languages. Also, I have a deep reverence for God, the One I worship and have come to know, and do not always use His name out loud.
 

101G

Well-Known Member
GINOLJC, to all
132:11 says that a male descendant of David will be the future king, so Mary is irrelevant to this verse.
your first mistake of the day. Mary Gave birth to the body that he, the Son of Man, (GOD), came in. so you're reproved there.
If you have any doubt, just read 132:12. Using a Christian text to validate the Christian interpretation is self-serving and intellectually dishonest. By the wat, if you look at 132:12 it also says that the royal line would continue through sons. Jesus had no sons. So he couldn't have been the one referred to.
second, third, and Fourth mistake of the DAY. A.. verse 12 confirms what the bible says about any of David offspring "KEEPING HIS COVENANT", none did, they all break his, (GOD) Covenant especially Solomon. listen to the verse carefully, 12 If thy children will keep my covenant and my testimony that I shall teach them, their children shall also sit upon thy throne for evermore. B. only the Lord Jesus is the Only ONE keep the Covenant, and the testimonies of God. C. because he did, he has the RIGHT to Sit on the Throne Forever/

thanks for pointing out verse 12 for me, it just makes my case stronger...... (smile) thanks.....
So he was the son of Joseph (as I said)
WHAT? can you read with understanding, . Luke 3:23 "And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli/

he never had sex with Mary until the Christ was Born. supposed is not his biological son, supportive scripture. Matthew 1:24 "Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:" Matthew 1:25 "And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS." again you';re reproved.
If your response when I point out that Jesus sinned is that everybody sinned, then you are not denying my claim, and indicating that everyone's status is relevant to contextualize Jesus' sins. What other conclusion would you draw?
if you cannot post scripture where the Lord Jesus sinned, then what you are saying is a moot point. scripture, orm NEXT.
Jesus is dead and the temple is a building. God is not a building.
fifth MISTAKE of the day. did he not rise from the DEAD? for there are two DEATH.... (smile).
and the TEMPLE is his now Glorified "Body", which is Spiritual in NATURE, bot made of sticks and stones, or wood or hay..... (smile).... LOL, LOL, LOL, Oh dear.
LISTEN and LEARN. Ephesians 2:19 "Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellowcitizens with the saints, and of the household of God;" Ephesians 2:20 "And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone;" Ephesians 2:21 "In whom all the building fitly framed together groweth unto an holy temple in the Lord:" Ephesians 2:22 "In whom ye also are builded together for an habitation of God through the Spirit."

rosends, don't take this the wrong way, but looking at your posts in replies, you know NOTHING of the New Covenant at all do you?

Yes, Isaiah speaks of himself as having been anointed, but he specifies that that "anointing" was to perform the acts of a prophet, not to make him a viable candidate for priest or king role. If you want to claim that Jesus was anointed in this same way then that's great -- it specifically invalidates any claim to any role other than prophet. Read Psalms 105:15 to see that prophets are called anointed.
are we not all anointed under the NEW COVENANT, again, rosends, you need to a. KNOW, and b. UNDERSTAND the New Covenant.
here are 4 that were not fulfilled, making Jesus a false messianic claimant.
-He must build the Third Temple (Ezekiel 37:26-28)
-He must gather all the Jews back to the Land of Israel (Is. 43:5-6)
- He must usher in an era of world peace and bring an end to hatred, oppression, suffering and disease (Is. 2:4)
- He must spread the knowledge of the G-d of Israel, uniting the entire world as one (Zechariah 14:9)
A. he has already been building the NEW TEMPLE, adding to it Daily. so you're repfroved. there
B. ERROR, wherever the sole of thy feet, Deuteronomy 11:23 "Then will the LORD drive out all these nations from before you, and ye shall possess greater nations and mightier than yourselves." see that "s" on NATIONS. WHY? because Abraham by Faith will be the Father of MANY NATION(S). this is Spiritual Israel, now fleshly (Jewish) Israel. Deuteronomy 11:24 "Every place whereon the soles of your feet shall tread shall be yours: from the wilderness and Lebanon, from the river, the river Euphrates, even unto the uttermost sea shall your coast be."
C. is this not in the Kingdom of God. for if you habe not accepted the Lord Jesus as your Saviour, then you're still sick with the disease called SIN, and you are not at peace with your fellow man, for, Romans 14:17 "For the kingdom of God is not meat and drink; but righteousness, and peace, and joy in the Holy Ghost.", you must not been BORN AGAIN.....

you might want to do better on future choices to prove Jesus a false messianic claimant.

we suggest you go back to the drawing board and start over./

101G.
 

101G

Well-Known Member
Without getting into a big debate here, there is no denying that Jesus said the Father in greater than he.
if so, how GREATER? did you not understand the post I gave you?

again, if Greater, how... in Quality, or Quantity that's the Only two choices you have.

101G.
 

101G

Well-Known Member
I like this verse from Isaiah which clarifies in my mind the absolute unity without division of the creator Y-H-V-H. Please note the words: "Yahweh makes all alone".

Isaiah 44:24

View attachment 69807
yes, "ALL ALONE" but I have a question for you that challenge this Alone without division.
in John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." John 1:2 "The same was in the beginning with God." John 1:3 "All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made."
my question, "how can God be ..... (with himself), nand yet be ALL ALONE?".

101G.

re-read the Post for clarity
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
GINOLJC, to all

your first mistake of the day. Mary Gave birth to the body that he, the Son of Man, (GOD), came in. so you're reproved there.
But she is irrelevant in establishing lineage so you are stuck with unnecessary facts. And to contend that there is a mother who gives birth to a body but that somehow that is distinct from the birth of God is ridiculous. So you are doubly wrong.
second, third, and Fourth mistake of the DAY. A.. verse 12 confirms what the bible says about any of David offspring "KEEPING HIS COVENANT", none did, they all break his, (GOD) Covenant especially Solomon. listen to the verse carefully, 12 If thy children will keep my covenant and my testimony that I shall teach them, their children shall also sit upon thy throne for evermore. B. only the Lord Jesus is the Only ONE keep the Covenant, and the testimonies of God. C. because he did, he has the RIGHT to Sit on the Throne Forever/

You just contradicted yourself. If you claim Jesus is of the Davidic line ("the fruit of David body" in your words) but say that "NONE" kept his covenant then Jesus is included and didn't keep the covenant. Then you say that Jesus does keep the covenant but since he never had any sons then there are no children to continue (note, it says that children will sit for evermore), which is required by the verses. You aren't very good at this.
thanks for pointing out verse 12 for me, it just makes my case stronger...... (smile) thanks.....
If you think strength comes from your making constant mistakes, you're welcome. I'm just pointing out how you are wrong at every turn and you seem to like that.
WHAT? can you read with understanding, . Luke 3:23 "And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli/

he never had sex with Mary until the Christ was Born. supposed is not his biological son, supportive scripture. Matthew 1:24 "Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:" Matthew 1:25 "And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS." again you';re reproved.
Great, then he has no lineage through his father to the Davidic line. Well shown! You have just disproven Jesus' legal claim. Great job!
if you cannot post scripture where the Lord Jesus sinned, then what you are saying is a moot point. scripture, orm NEXT.
Actually, I posted a link to a website that has many, may examples of Jesus' lies. If you can't read, then maybe you need to go back to school, assuming you ever went in the first place.
fifth MISTAKE of the day. did he not rise from the DEAD? for there are two DEATH.... (smile).
If you are going to invent things, you might as well claim he was a cat and had 9 lives.
and the TEMPLE is his now Glorified "Body", which is Spiritual in NATURE, bot made of sticks and stones, or wood or hay..... (smile).... LOL, LOL, LOL, Oh dear.
No, a temple is a building. The thing is, because there was no building built, you have to invent this rationalization and claim a temple is something else. You would claim it is a can of tuna fish if that satisfied your feline agenda. Thing is, a temple is a temple, your fantasies not withstanding.
LISTEN and LEARN. Ephesians 2:19 "Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellowcitizens with the saints, and of the household of God;" Ephesians 2:20 "And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone;" Ephesians 2:21 "In whom all the building fitly framed together groweth unto an holy temple in the Lord:" Ephesians 2:22 "In whom ye also are builded together for an habitation of God through the Spirit."
And you support your inventions with the self serving Christian fiction. Brilliant. Someday, try to use relevant texts and actual proofs. Should I start quoting from Harry Potter?

rosends, don't take this the wrong way, but looking at your posts in replies, you know NOTHING of the New Covenant at all do you?
I actually know a lot, including that it is all irrelevant (though I have studied it enough to quote mine and point out your errors if I wish to).

are we not all anointed under the NEW COVENANT, again, rosends, you need to a. KNOW, and b. UNDERSTAND the New Covenant.
No, we aren't and your misunderstanding of what you call a "new covenant" is indicative of a real lack of study on your part. So you don't understand the exact texts and theology that Jesus would have abided by. You reject him and his beliefs and replace them with your own inventions. Sad.
A. he has already been building the NEW TEMPLE, adding to it Daily. so you're repfroved. there
A temple is a building, you are proven wrong there.
B. ERROR, wherever the sole of thy feet, Deuteronomy 11:23 "Then will the LORD drive out all these nations from before you, and ye shall possess greater nations and mightier than yourselves." see that "s" on NATIONS. WHY? because Abraham by Faith will be the Father of MANY NATION(S).
The fact that Abraham actually WAS the father of many nations (you DO know what his name means, right?) is irrelevant. The verse you chose speaks of the Children of Israel conquering the land of Canaan and the nations that lived there. That land was an inheritance based on the promise to the forefathers. Instead of snipping a quote out of context and misrepresenting it, you might try for a measure of academic honesty for once.
this is Spiritual Israel, now fleshly (Jewish) Israel. Deuteronomy 11:24 "Every place whereon the soles of your feet shall tread shall be yours: from the wilderness and Lebanon, from the river, the river Euphrates, even unto the uttermost sea shall your coast be."
That was a promise to the actual nation, to inherit the land of Israel. Making up "spiritual Israel" doesn't change what the text actually says.
C. is this not in the Kingdom of God. for if you habe not accepted the Lord Jesus as your Saviour, then you're still sick with the disease called SIN, and you are not at peace with your fellow man, for, Romans 14:17 "For the kingdom of God is not meat and drink; but righteousness, and peace, and joy in the Holy Ghost.", you must not been BORN AGAIN.....
That is another of you rationalizations. When the text says something, you say "yeah, well it means something else."

Except it doesn't. There is no such thing as "born again." You will, no doubt, stamp your feet and insist that there is, and maybe quote from your Christian fictions some more. But that doesn't change reality.
you might want to do better on future choices to prove Jesus a false messianic claimant.
You have yet to disprove any of the required prophecies, nor have you proven how Jesus fulfilled them. He failed. He was false. Deal with it as your worldview comes crashing down.

I suggest you start from scratch and try to think for yourself and build ideas instead of glomming on to what others tell you and believing it blindly. It is really sad to see you flail like this.
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
yes, "ALL ALONE" but I have a question for you that challenge this Alone without division.
in John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." John 1:2 "The same was in the beginning with God." John 1:3 "All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made."
my question, "how can God be ..... (with himself), nand yet be ALL ALONE?".

101G.

re-read the Post for clarity
He can't. All this does it prove that the text of John is a logical and semantic error. And even in the face of the obvious error, you believe it. Good job.
 

dybmh

ויהי מבדיל בין מים למים
yes, "ALL ALONE" but I have a question for you that challenge this Alone without division.
in John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." John 1:2 "The same was in the beginning with God." John 1:3 "All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made."
my question, "how can God be ..... (with himself), nand yet be ALL ALONE?".

101G.

re-read the Post for clarity
Thank you for the reply; good morning and best wishes.

To answer your question, in my view, Isaiah 44:24 contradicts John 1. Isaiah would not approve of the concept "the word was God" at least not for Jewish people.
 

dybmh

ויהי מבדיל בין מים למים
if you cannot post scripture where the Lord Jesus sinned, then what you are saying is a moot point. scripture, orm NEXT.
Here's a clear and easy one.

The ten commandments given at Mt. Sinai require a Jewish person to honor their parents. Jesus in Matthew 12 refuses an audience with his mother. That is a sin.

Here's a more obscure example.

John 7. Jesus here speaks about "his time had not yet come". I think we can both agree that an important element of the story is that Jesus needed to die in a certain place at a certain time. Coordinating his own death to occur at a specific auspicious time is a form of sorcery. Sorcery is forbidden. It's a sin.

So there's two examples. I do not doubt that one can rationalize these and imagine that the rules don't apply to Jesus. But you asked for examples, you asked for scripture, and now you have it.

Exodus 20:12 requires honoring the parents.
Exodus 22:18 prohibits sorcery.

Matthew 12 shows Jesus dishonoring his mother.
John 7 shows Jesus was coordinating his death to occur at an auspicious time. Imagine it like a pagan who waits for a full moon to make their petition. The source of the power (aka sorcery) comes from the time itself. Thus the time/date is considered to be a divine power all on its own. That's what makes it sorcery.

To be clear: yes Jewish people have been instructed to do certain things at certain times. But because the commandment comes from God, then the divine power is deemed to be God not the time/date itself. It's a subtle difference.
 
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